Reproductive Health NEET MCQs 2027 | 200+ NCERT Based Questions with Answers & PYQs

 

Reproductive Health – 200 NEET PYQ-Style MCQs (Part 1)

1. Which contraceptive is a non-steroidal oral pill developed in India?

A) Mala-D
B) Saheli
C) Copper-T
D) LNG-20

✅ Ans: B


2. Copper ions released by Cu-T mainly:

A) Prevent ovulation B) Kill zygote C) Suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity D) Prevent implantation only

✅ Ans: C


3. Which one is a natural contraceptive method?

A) Cervical cap B) Coitus interruptus C) Copper-T D) Tubectomy

✅ Ans: B


4. Vasectomy involves:

A) Cutting fallopian tubes B) Removal of testes C) Cutting vas deferens D) Removal of epididymis

✅ Ans: C


5. Tubectomy is performed by:

A) Cutting vas deferens B) Cutting urethra C) Cutting fallopian tubes D) Removing ovary

✅ Ans: C


6. Which is a barrier contraceptive?

A) Condom B) Saheli C) Cu-T D) LNG-20

✅ Ans: A


7. Condom helps prevent:

A) Pregnancy only B) STDs only C) Pregnancy and STDs D) Ovulation

✅ Ans: C


8. Lippe's loop is:

A) Hormonal IUD B) Copper IUD C) Non-medicated IUD D) Oral pill

✅ Ans: C


9. Cu-T belongs to:

A) Barrier method B) IUD C) Surgical method D) Natural method

✅ Ans: B


10. LNG-20 is:

A) Hormone-releasing IUD B) Copper IUD C) Barrier device D) Surgical method

✅ Ans: A


11. Which STD is caused by bacteria?

A) AIDS B) Gonorrhoea C) Genital herpes D) Hepatitis-B

✅ Ans: B


12. AIDS is caused by:

A) HBV B) HIV C) HPV D) HSV

✅ Ans: B


13. Genital herpes is caused by:

A) HSV B) HIV C) HBV D) HCV

✅ Ans: A


14. Syphilis is caused by:

A) Treponema pallidum B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae C) HIV D) HSV

✅ Ans: A


15. Which STD is viral?

A) Gonorrhoea B) Syphilis C) Chlamydiasis D) AIDS

✅ Ans: D


16. Most STDs affect:

A) Reproductive tract B) Respiratory tract C) Digestive tract D) Nervous system

✅ Ans: A


17. ART stands for:

A) Assisted Reproductive Technologies B) Artificial Reproductive Treatment C) Advanced Reproduction Technique D) Assisted Reproduction Therapy

✅ Ans: A


18. IVF means:

A) Internal fertilisation B) In vitro fertilisation C) In vivo fertilisation D) Artificial insemination

✅ Ans: B


19. Test tube baby technique is:

A) GIFT B) ZIFT C) IVF-ET D) ICSI

✅ Ans: C


20. In ZIFT, transfer is made at:

A) Embryo >8 blastomeres B) Zygote/early embryo C) Ovum stage D) Blastocyst only

✅ Ans: B


21. GIFT stands for:

A) Gamete intrafallopian transfer B) Genetic intrafallopian transfer C) Gamete internal fertilisation technique D) Germinal intrafallopian transfer

✅ Ans: A


22. In GIFT, transferred structure is:

A) Embryo B) Zygote C) Gamete D) Blastocyst

✅ Ans: C


23. ICSI stands for:

A) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection B) Internal sperm injection C) In vitro sperm injection D) Cytoplasmic fertilisation

✅ Ans: A


24. Amniocentesis is used for:

A) Sex determination B) Prenatal diagnosis C) Contraception D) MTP

✅ Ans: B


25. Sex determination by amniocentesis is:

A) Encouraged B) Legal C) Banned D) Recommended

✅ Ans: C


26. MTP stands for:

A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy B) Maternal Treatment Process C) Medical Transfer Procedure D) Maternal Therapy Program

✅ Ans: A


27. MTP is generally considered safer during:

A) First trimester B) Second trimester C) Third trimester D) After birth

✅ Ans: A


28. Population explosion refers to:

A) Sudden increase in population B) Decrease in population C) Stable population D) Migration

✅ Ans: A


29. Which contraceptive protects against STDs?

A) Cu-T B) Saheli C) Condom D) LNG-20

✅ Ans: C


30. World population crossed 8 billion in:

A) 2020 B) 2021 C) 2022 D) 2023

✅ Ans: C

๐Ÿ”ฅ NEET Frequency Analysis:

  • Contraception → 40%
  • ART (IVF, GIFT, ZIFT, ICSI) → 25%
  • STDs → 20%
  • MTP & Amniocentesis → 10%
  • Population explosion → 5%
  • Reproductive Health – NEET MCQs (Q31–60)
31. Which IUD releases copper ions?

A) LNG-20
B) Multiload 375
C) Lippe's loop
D) Saheli

✅ Ans: B


---

32. Which is NOT an IUD?

A) Cu-T
B) LNG-20
C) Multiload 375
D) Condom

✅ Ans: D


---

33. The ideal contraceptive should be:

A) Expensive B) User-friendly C) Cause many side effects D) Require surgery

✅ Ans: B


---

34. One major advantage of oral contraceptive pills is:

A) Permanent sterility B) Easy reversibility C) Surgery-free infertility D) Destruction of ovaries

✅ Ans: B


---

35. Saheli was developed by:

A) WHO B) AIIMS C) CDRI, Lucknow D) NCERT

✅ Ans: C


---

36. Which disease is caused by HIV?

A) Gonorrhoea B) Syphilis C) AIDS D) Herpes

✅ Ans: C


---

37. Which STD may remain symptomless in early stages?

A) Chlamydiasis B) AIDS C) Gonorrhoea D) All of these

✅ Ans: D


---

38. Early detection and proper treatment can cure:

A) AIDS B) Hepatitis-B C) Gonorrhoea D) Herpes

✅ Ans: C


---

39. Which STD is caused by a protozoan?

A) Syphilis B) Gonorrhoea C) Trichomoniasis D) AIDS

✅ Ans: C


---

40. Which of the following is NOT sexually transmitted?

A) AIDS B) Typhoid C) Gonorrhoea D) Syphilis

✅ Ans: B


---

41. IVF followed by embryo transfer is called:

A) ART B) MTP C) Amniocentesis D) Lactation

✅ Ans: A


---

42. In IVF, fertilization occurs:

A) Uterus B) Fallopian tube C) Laboratory D) Ovary

✅ Ans: C


---

43. Transfer of an ovum from donor to another female is:

A) ZIFT B) GIFT C) ICSI D) AI

✅ Ans: B


---

44. Artificial insemination involves:

A) Embryo transfer B) Transfer of semen into female tract C) Ovum transfer D) Zygote transfer

✅ Ans: B


---

45. ICSI is mainly useful when:

A) Male infertility exists B) Female infertility exists C) Ovulation absent D) Uterus absent

✅ Ans: A


---

46. Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into:

A) Ovary B) Oviduct C) Uterus D) Cervix

✅ Ans: C


---

47. Zygote up to 8 blastomeres is transferred into:

A) Uterus B) Oviduct C) Cervix D) Vagina

✅ Ans: B


---

48. Which ART technique directly injects sperm into ovum?

A) GIFT B) ZIFT C) ICSI D) AI

✅ Ans: C


---

49. Amniocentesis analyzes:

A) Blood B) Semen C) Amniotic fluid D) Urine

✅ Ans: C


---

50. Amniocentesis can detect:

A) Genetic disorders B) Respiratory diseases C) Digestive disorders D) Heart attack

✅ Ans: A


---

51. MTP is often advised when:

A) Pregnancy threatens mother's health B) Child is healthy C) Ovulation occurs D) Lactation begins

✅ Ans: A


---

52. Government banned misuse of amniocentesis because of:

A) Cost B) Female foeticide C) Low accuracy D) Infection

✅ Ans: B


---

53. Which method is permanent?

A) Condom B) Cu-T C) Vasectomy D) Pills

✅ Ans: C


---

54. Which one is a female surgical contraceptive method?

A) Vasectomy B) Tubectomy C) Condom D) Diaphragm

✅ Ans: B


---

55. The major reason for population explosion is:

A) Reduced death rate B) Reduced food supply C) Increased diseases D) Reduced fertility

✅ Ans: A


---

56. Family planning programs in India started in:

A) 1951 B) 1952 C) 1962 D) 1972

✅ Ans: A


---

57. Reproductive health means:

A) Absence of disease only B) Physical well-being only C) Total well-being in reproductive aspects D) Fertility only

✅ Ans: C


---

58. Which is a hormone-releasing IUD?

A) Cu-T B) Multiload 375 C) LNG-20 D) Lippe's Loop

✅ Ans: C


---

59. Which contraceptive increases phagocytosis of sperms?

A) IUDs B) Condom C) Vasectomy D) Rhythm method

✅ Ans: A


---

60. "Small family norm" helps in:

A) Population stabilization B) Increasing fertility C) Increasing infant mortality D) Increasing birth rate

✅ Ans: A

Reproductive Health – Assertion & Reason (Q61–100)

NCERT Based | NEET Level | Verified

Options for all questions:

A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.


Q61

A: Reproductive health refers to total well-being in all aspects of reproduction.
R: It includes physical, emotional, behavioural and social well-being.

Answer: A


Q62

A: India initiated national-level programmes related to reproductive health in 1951.
R: India was among the first countries to take such initiatives.

Answer: A


Q63

A: Reproductive Child Health Care (RCH) programmes aim at creating awareness among people.
R: Awareness helps build a reproductively healthy society.

Answer: A


Q64

A: Sex education should be encouraged in schools.
R: It provides correct information about reproductive organs, adolescence and STDs.

Answer: A


Q65

A: Contraception helps prevent unwanted pregnancies.
R: Contraceptive methods increase fertility.

Answer: C


Q66

A: Natural contraceptive methods avoid meeting of sperm and ovum.
R: Fertilisation requires sperm and ovum to meet.

Answer: A


Q67

A: Periodic abstinence is a natural method of contraception.
R: Coitus is avoided during the fertile period of the menstrual cycle.

Answer: A


Q68

A: Withdrawal or coitus interruptus is a natural contraceptive method.
R: Semen is deposited in the vagina before ejaculation.

Answer: C


Q69

A: Lactational amenorrhea can act as a contraceptive method.
R: Ovulation and menstruation are absent during the period.

Answer: A


Q70

A: Condoms are barrier contraceptives.
R: They prevent insemination and also reduce risk of STDs.

Answer: A


Q71

A: Condoms are reusable contraceptive devices.
R: They are made of thin rubber/latex.

Answer: D


Q72

A: Cervical caps and diaphragms are barrier methods.
R: They cover the cervix and prevent sperm entry.

Answer: A


Q73

A: IUDs are one of the most widely accepted contraceptive methods.
R: They are effective, reversible and easy to use.

Answer: A


Q74

A: Lippe's Loop is a non-medicated IUD.
R: It releases copper ions into the uterus.

Answer: C


Q75

A: Cu-T is a copper-releasing IUD.
R: Copper ions suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity.

Answer: A


Q76

A: Hormone-releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
R: They release hormones such as progesterone.

Answer: A


Q77

A: Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill.
R: It was developed by CDRI, Lucknow.

Answer: B


Q78

A: Vasectomy is performed in females.
R: Vas deferens are cut and tied.

Answer: D


Q79

A: Tubectomy is a surgical method of contraception in females.
R: Fallopian tubes are cut and tied.

Answer: A


Q80

A: MTP means Medical Termination of Pregnancy.
R: It is used only for population control.

Answer: C


Q81

A: MTP is generally safer during the first trimester.
R: Risk of complications is lower in early pregnancy.

Answer: A


Q82

A: Amniocentesis is used for prenatal diagnosis.
R: It can detect chromosomal abnormalities.

Answer: A


Q83

A: Amniocentesis is legally permitted for sex determination in India.
R: Misuse led to female foeticide.

Answer: D


Q84

A: Gonorrhoea is caused by a bacterium.
R: The causative organism is Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Answer: A


Q85

A: Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease.
R: It is caused by Treponema pallidum.

Answer: A


Q86

A: AIDS is caused by HIV.
R: HIV attacks the immune system.

Answer: A


Q87

A: Early symptoms of STDs are always very severe.
R: Many STDs show mild symptoms initially.

Answer: D


Q88

A: Untreated STDs may lead to infertility.
R: They may damage reproductive organs.

Answer: A


Q89

A: ART stands for Assisted Reproductive Technologies.
R: These techniques help infertile couples conceive.

Answer: A


Q90

A: IVF involves fertilisation outside the body.
R: Ovum and sperm are fused under laboratory conditions.

Answer: A


Q91

A: ZIFT involves transfer of zygote into the fallopian tube.
R: Zygote or early embryo up to 8 blastomeres is transferred into oviduct.

Answer: A


Q92

A: Embryo Transfer (ET) involves transfer of embryos with more than 8 blastomeres into uterus.
R: Uterus is suitable for further development of such embryos.

Answer: A


Q93

A: GIFT involves transfer of gametes into fallopian tube.
R: Fertilisation occurs inside the female body.

Answer: A


Q94

A: ICSI is useful in severe male infertility cases.
R: A sperm is directly injected into the ovum.

Answer: A


Q95

A: Artificial insemination involves introduction of semen into female reproductive tract.
R: It helps overcome certain infertility problems.

Answer: A


Q96

A: Population explosion refers to rapid increase in population size.
R: Decline in death rate contributes to population growth.

Answer: A


Q97

A: Family planning programmes promote the small family norm.
R: Small families help population stabilisation.

Answer: A


Q98

A: Reproductive health programmes focus only on contraception.
R: They also include maternal health, child care and awareness.

Answer: D


Q99

A: Healthy reproductive behaviour is essential for a healthy society.
R: Reproductive health is an important component of overall health.

Answer: A


Q100

A: Creating awareness among adolescents is important for reproductive health.
R: Correct knowledge helps prevent misconceptions and risky behaviour.

Answer: A

NEET Revision Box (NCERT Must Remember)

  • 1951 → India initiated national programmes.
  • Lippe's Loop → Non-medicated IUD.
  • Cu-T, Cu-7, Multiload-375 → Copper IUDs.
  • LNG-20, Progestasert → Hormone-releasing IUDs.
  • Saheli → Non-steroidal oral pill, CDRI Lucknow.
  • ZIFT → Zygote/≤8 blastomere embryo → Oviduct.
  • ET → >8 blastomere embryo → Uterus.
  • GIFT → Gamete transfer.
  • ICSI → Sperm injected into ovum.
  • Amniocentesis → Prenatal diagnosis, not sex determination.
  • MTP → Safer in first trimester.

Reproductive Health – Assertion & Reason MCQs (NEET Level)

Directions:

A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.


Q1

Assertion (A): India was among the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level for attaining reproductive health.

Reason (R): The programme was initiated in 1951 to attain total reproductive health as a social goal.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true

Answer: A


Q2

Assertion (A): Reproductive health means complete physical, emotional, behavioural and social well-being in all aspects of reproduction.

Reason (R): Reproductive health only means absence of reproductive diseases.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: C


Q3

Assertion (A): Contraceptive methods help in checking population explosion.

Reason (R): Contraceptives prevent unwanted pregnancies.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q4

Assertion (A): Condoms are effective contraceptives.

Reason (R): Condoms provide protection against STDs including AIDS.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: B (Reason true hai, but condom contraceptive kyun hai uska direct explanation nahi hai.)


Q5

Assertion (A): IUDs are ideal contraceptives.

Reason (R): They are highly effective, reversible and easy to use.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q6

Assertion (A): Copper-T suppresses sperm motility.

Reason (R): Copper ions released by Cu-T reduce fertilising capacity of sperms.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q7

Assertion (A): Saheli is a hormone-releasing IUD.

Reason (R): Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: D


Q8

Assertion (A): Vasectomy is a surgical method of contraception in males.

Reason (R): Vas deferens is cut and tied in vasectomy.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q9

Assertion (A): Tubectomy is performed in males.

Reason (R): Fallopian tubes are cut and tied during tubectomy.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: D


Q10

Assertion (A): STDs can lead to infertility if left untreated.

Reason (R): STDs may damage reproductive organs.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q11

Assertion (A): Gonorrhoea is caused by a virus.

Reason (R): Gonorrhoea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: D


Q12

Assertion (A): AIDS is caused by HIV.

Reason (R): HIV attacks cells of the immune system.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q13

Assertion (A): IVF is commonly known as test-tube baby technique.

Reason (R): Fertilisation occurs outside the female body.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q14

Assertion (A): ZIFT involves transfer of zygote into fallopian tube.

Reason (R): Zygote or early embryo up to 8 blastomeres is transferred into oviduct.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q15

Assertion (A): GIFT involves transfer of gametes into fallopian tube.

Reason (R): Fertilisation occurs inside the female body after transfer.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q16

Assertion (A): ICSI is useful in cases of severe male infertility.

Reason (R): A sperm is directly injected into the ovum.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q17

Assertion (A): Amniocentesis is used for prenatal diagnosis.

Reason (R): Amniotic fluid contains foetal cells that can be analysed.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q18

Assertion (A): Sex determination by amniocentesis is banned in India.

Reason (R): Misuse of this technique led to female foeticide.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q19

Assertion (A): Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is generally safer during the first trimester.

Reason (R): Risk of complications is lower during early pregnancy.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A


Q20

Assertion (A): Population explosion is due to a rapid decline in death rate.

Reason (R): Improvement in health care and living conditions increased survival rate.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R does not explain A
C) A true but R false
D) A false but R true

Answer: A

เค…เค—เคฐ เคคुเคฎ्เคนाเคฐा เคฒเค•्เคท्เคฏ NEET 2027 เคนै, เคคो 101–200 เคคเค• เค•ेเคตเคฒ เค†เคธाเคจ เคช्เคฐเคถ्เคจ เคฆेเคจे เคธे เคซाเคฏเคฆा เค•เคฎ เคนोเค—ा। เคฌेเคนเคคเคฐ เคนै เค•ि เคนเคฎ NCERT เค•ी เคฒाเค‡เคจ-เคฆเคฐ-เคฒाเค‡เคจ, statement-based, match-the-column, multiple-correct, and assertion-reason เคธ्เคคเคฐ เค•े เคช्เคฐเคถ्เคจ เค•เคฐें, เค•्เคฏोंเค•ि NEET เค…เคฌ เค‰เคธी เคฆिเคถा เคฎें เคœा เคฐเคนा เคนै।

เคฏเคนाँ Q101–120 (High-Yield NCERT Level) เคฆे เคฐเคนा เคนूँ:

Q101

Which of the following are natural methods of contraception?

  1. Periodic abstinence
  2. Coitus interruptus
  3. Lactational amenorrhea
  4. Copper-T

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: A


Q102

Which statement is incorrect regarding lactational amenorrhea?

A) Effective only during intense breastfeeding
B) Effective up to about 6 months after delivery
C) Ovulation is absent
D) It is a permanent contraceptive method

Ans: D


Q103

Match the IUD with its category:

IUD Category
A. Lippe's Loop 1. Hormone releasing
B. Cu-T 2. Non-medicated
C. LNG-20 3. Copper releasing

A) A-2, B-3, C-1
B) A-3, B-2, C-1
C) A-1, B-3, C-2
D) A-2, B-1, C-3

Ans: A


Q104

Which is NOT a barrier method?

A) Diaphragm
B) Cervical cap
C) Condom
D) Multiload-375

Ans: D


Q105

Copper-releasing IUDs primarily:

A) Inhibit ovulation
B) Increase phagocytosis of sperms
C) Destroy zygote
D) Prevent menstruation

Ans: B


Q106

Which of the following is NOT mentioned by NCERT as a benefit of condoms?

A) Easy availability
B) Protection from STDs
C) Reusability
D) Low cost

Ans: C


Q107

Saheli differs from conventional oral pills because it is:

A) Steroidal
B) Non-steroidal
C) Injectable
D) Copper based

Ans: B


Q108

The surgical method in males is:

A) Tubectomy
B) Vasectomy
C) Hysterectomy
D) Castration

Ans: B


Q109

Which pair is correctly matched?

A) Vasectomy — Oviduct cut
B) Tubectomy — Vas deferens cut
C) Vasectomy — Vas deferens cut
D) Tubectomy — Urethra cut

Ans: C


Q110

According to NCERT, STDs include all EXCEPT:

A) Gonorrhoea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydiasis
D) Malaria

Ans: D


Q111

Which STD is caused by bacteria?

  1. Gonorrhoea
  2. Syphilis
  3. Chlamydiasis
  4. AIDS

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans: A


Q112

One of the most important steps to prevent STDs is:

A) Multiple partners
B) Avoiding sexual contact with unknown partners
C) Ignoring symptoms
D) Delaying treatment

Ans: B


Q113

Which disease is caused by HIV?

A) Gonorrhoea
B) AIDS
C) Syphilis
D) Herpes

Ans: B


Q114

Untreated STDs may lead to:

  1. Pelvic inflammatory disease
  2. Infertility
  3. Ectopic pregnancy

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D


Q115

ART stands for:

A) Artificial Reproductive Treatment
B) Assisted Reproductive Technologies
C) Assisted Reproductive Therapy
D) Advanced Reproductive Technique

Ans: B


Q116

In IVF-ET, fertilisation occurs:

A) Uterus
B) Oviduct
C) Laboratory
D) Ovary

Ans: C


Q117

Transfer of zygote into fallopian tube is called:

A) ICSI
B) ET
C) ZIFT
D) GIFT

Ans: C


Q118

Transfer of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into uterus is:

A) ET
B) GIFT
C) AI
D) ICSI

Ans: A


Q119

Which ART involves direct injection of sperm into ovum?

A) ZIFT
B) GIFT
C) ICSI
D) AI

Ans: C


Q120

Amniocentesis is mainly used for:

A) Contraception
B) Prenatal diagnosis
C) Sterilisation
D) Ovulation induction

Ans: B

Important Note

NCERT เคฎें เคเค• เคฒाเค‡เคจ เคนै:

"Though all persons are reproductively healthy, they may not be fertile."

เคฏเคน เคฒाเค‡เคจ NEET เคฎें statement-based เคช्เคฐเคถ्เคจ เค•े เคฐूเคช เคฎें เค•เคˆ เคฌाเคฐ เคชूเค›ी เคœा เคธเค•เคคी เคนै।

Reproductive Health – Q121–140 (NCERT Line-by-Line | NEET Level)

Q121

Read the following statements:

  1. Reproductive health refers only to physical well-being.
  2. Reproductive health includes emotional and social well-being.
  3. Reproductive health aims at a reproductively healthy society.

Choose the correct option:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B


Q122

Which of the following is NOT a goal of RCH programmes?

A) Creating awareness B) Providing reproductive health facilities C) Increasing population growth D) Maternal and child health care

Answer: C


Q123

According to NCERT, which age group requires proper sex education the most?

A) Infants B) Adolescents C) Elderly people D) Newborns

Answer: B


Q124

Which of the following statements about condoms is incorrect?

A) They are barrier methods. B) They protect against many STDs. C) They are reusable. D) They prevent insemination.

Answer: C


Q125

Match the following:

Method Type
A. Coitus interruptus 1. Surgical
B. Vasectomy 2. Natural
C. Cu-T 3. IUD
D. Condom 4. Barrier

A) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
B) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
C) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
D) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

Answer: A


Q126

Which of the following is a hormone-releasing IUD?

A) Cu-T B) Multiload-375 C) LNG-20 D) Cu-7

Answer: C


Q127

Which statement is correct regarding copper-releasing IUDs?

A) They prevent sperm production. B) They increase phagocytosis of sperms. C) They stop menstruation. D) They remove ovulation permanently.

Answer: B


Q128

Saheli is:

A) A steroidal oral pill B) A non-steroidal oral pill C) A copper-releasing IUD D) A barrier contraceptive

Answer: B


Q129

Who developed Saheli?

A) WHO B) NCERT C) CDRI, Lucknow D) AIIMS

Answer: C


Q130

Which contraceptive method is considered most effective among the following?

A) Periodic abstinence B) Condom C) Sterilisation D) Withdrawal

Answer: C


Q131

Which STD is caused by a virus?

A) Gonorrhoea B) Syphilis C) Chlamydiasis D) AIDS

Answer: D


Q132

Which pair is incorrectly matched?

A) Gonorrhoea – Bacterial B) Syphilis – Bacterial C) AIDS – Viral D) Chlamydiasis – Protozoan

Answer: D (Chlamydiasis is bacterial.)


Q133

According to NCERT, many STDs show:

A) Severe symptoms immediately B) No symptoms in the early stages C) Permanent infertility from day one D) Instant death

Answer: B


Q134

Untreated STDs may cause:

  1. Pelvic inflammatory disease
  2. Infertility
  3. Ectopic pregnancy

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 2 only D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D


Q135

Which ART technique involves transfer of gametes into the fallopian tube?

A) ZIFT B) ET C) GIFT D) ICSI

Answer: C


Q136

In ZIFT, transferred structure is:

A) Gamete B) Zygote or early embryo up to 8 blastomeres C) Embryo >8 blastomeres D) Sperm only

Answer: B


Q137

Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into:

A) Ovary B) Oviduct C) Uterus D) Cervix

Answer: C


Q138

ICSI stands for:

A) Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection B) Internal Cell Sperm Insemination C) Intrauterine Cytoplasmic Sperm Implantation D) Internal Cytoplasmic Semen Injection

Answer: A


Q139

Amniocentesis is used for:

A) Prenatal diagnosis B) Sex determination C) Contraception D) Sterilisation

Answer: A


Q140

The major reason for banning misuse of amniocentesis in India is:

A) Costly procedure B) Risk of infection C) Female foeticide D) Low accuracy

Answer: C

NEET Trap Facts (NCERT)

  • All fertile persons are reproductively healthy? ❌ False
  • All reproductively healthy persons are fertile? ❌ False
  • NCERT says: "All fertile persons are not necessarily reproductively healthy, and all reproductively healthy persons are not necessarily fertile."
  • Condom = Only contraceptive specifically highlighted for protection against STDs including AIDS.
  • Lactational amenorrhea works only during intense breastfeeding and up to about 6 months after delivery.

  • Reproductive Health – Q141–160 (NCERT Line-by-Line | NEET Advanced)

    Q141

    According to NCERT, reproductive health means:

    A) Absence of disease only
    B) Physical well-being only
    C) Total well-being in all aspects of reproduction
    D) Fertility only

    Answer: C


    Q142

    Which of the following is NOT included in reproductive health?

    A) Emotional well-being
    B) Social well-being
    C) Behavioural well-being
    D) Economic well-being

    Answer: D


    Q143

    Which statement is correct?

    A) All fertile persons are reproductively healthy.
    B) All reproductively healthy persons are fertile.
    C) Fertility and reproductive health are exactly the same.
    D) Fertility and reproductive health are not necessarily the same.

    Answer: D


    Q144

    The primary objective of sex education is:

    A) Increase population growth
    B) Spread misconceptions
    C) Provide correct information and awareness
    D) Promote early marriage

    Answer: C


    Q145

    Which contraceptive method has the least chance of user failure?

    A) Condom
    B) Coitus interruptus
    C) Sterilisation
    D) Periodic abstinence

    Answer: C


    Q146

    Which of the following is a natural method of contraception?

    A) Diaphragm
    B) Copper-T
    C) Lactational amenorrhea
    D) Tubectomy

    Answer: C


    Q147

    The fertile period in a 28-day menstrual cycle is approximately:

    A) Days 1–5
    B) Days 8–17
    C) Days 20–28
    D) Days 25–28

    Answer: B


    Q148

    Which statement regarding coitus interruptus is correct?

    A) Semen is deposited inside the vagina.
    B) Penis is withdrawn before ejaculation.
    C) It is a surgical method.
    D) It is an IUD method.

    Answer: B


    Q149

    Lactational amenorrhea is effective because:

    A) Ovulation is suppressed.
    B) Sperms are destroyed.
    C) Implantation is blocked.
    D) Ova are removed.

    Answer: A


    Q150

    Which one is NOT a barrier method?

    A) Condom
    B) Diaphragm
    C) Cervical cap
    D) LNG-20

    Answer: D


    Q151

    The full form of IUD is:

    A) Internal Uterine Device
    B) Intra Uterine Device
    C) Internal Uterus Detector
    D) Intra Urinary Device

    Answer: B


    Q152

    Which IUD is non-medicated?

    A) Cu-T
    B) LNG-20
    C) Lippe's Loop
    D) Multiload-375

    Answer: C


    Q153

    Copper-releasing IUDs include:

    1. Cu-T
    2. Cu-7
    3. Multiload-375

    A) 1 and 2 only
    B) 2 and 3 only
    C) 1 and 3 only
    D) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: D


    Q154

    Hormone-releasing IUDs include:

    1. Progestasert
    2. LNG-20
    3. Cu-T

    A) 1 only
    B) 1 and 2 only
    C) 2 and 3 only
    D) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: B


    Q155

    Which contraceptive is developed in India?

    A) Cu-T
    B) Saheli
    C) LNG-20
    D) Lippe's Loop

    Answer: B


    Q156

    The active ingredient of Saheli is:

    A) Steroidal hormone
    B) Copper ions
    C) Centchroman (Ormeloxifene)
    D) Progesterone

    Answer: C


    Q157

    Which of the following is NOT an STD?

    A) Gonorrhoea
    B) Syphilis
    C) Amoebiasis
    D) Chlamydiasis

    Answer: C


    Q158

    Which STD is caused by Treponema pallidum?

    A) Gonorrhoea
    B) Syphilis
    C) AIDS
    D) Chlamydiasis

    Answer: B


    Q159

    Which STD is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

    A) Syphilis
    B) AIDS
    C) Gonorrhoea
    D) Herpes

    Answer: C


    Q160

    The causative agent of AIDS is:

    A) HBV
    B) HSV
    C) HIV
    D) HPV

    Answer: C

    ๐ŸŽฏ Super Important NCERT Facts

    • Day 10–17 is often considered the fertile window in NCERT discussions (NEET may ask conceptually).
    • Saheli = Centchroman (Ormeloxifene).
    • Lippe's Loop = Non-medicated IUD.
    • Cu-T, Cu-7, Multiload-375 = Copper-releasing IUDs.
    • LNG-20, Progestasert = Hormone-releasing IUDs.

    Reproductive Health – Q161–180 (NEET NCERT Master Level)

    Q161

    Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

    A) Syphilis
    B) Gonorrhoea
    C) Chlamydiasis
    D) Genital herpes

    Answer: D


    Q162

    According to NCERT, common early symptoms of STDs include:

    1. Itching
    2. Fluid discharge
    3. Slight pain
    4. Swelling

    A) 1, 2 and 3 only
    B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    C) 2 and 4 only
    D) 1 and 4 only

    Answer: B


    Q163

    Untreated STDs may lead to:

    A) Infertility only
    B) Pelvic inflammatory disease only
    C) Ectopic pregnancy only
    D) All of these

    Answer: D


    Q164

    Which STD is specifically highlighted by NCERT as having no definite cure?

    A) Gonorrhoea
    B) Syphilis
    C) Chlamydiasis
    D) AIDS

    Answer: D


    Q165

    Which statement is correct?

    A) All STDs are curable.
    B) Viral STDs are generally difficult to cure completely.
    C) Bacterial STDs are never curable.
    D) AIDS is caused by bacteria.

    Answer: B


    Q166

    ART is mainly used for:

    A) Population control
    B) Treatment of infertility
    C) Treatment of STDs
    D) MTP

    Answer: B


    Q167

    In IVF-ET, fertilization occurs:

    A) In uterus
    B) In oviduct
    C) Outside the body
    D) Inside ovary

    Answer: C


    Q168

    The term "test-tube baby" refers to:

    A) GIFT
    B) IVF followed by ET
    C) ICSI only
    D) AI

    Answer: B


    Q169

    ZIFT stands for:

    A) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
    B) Zygote Internal Fertility Technique
    C) Zygote In Vitro Fertility Transfer
    D) Zygote Implantation Fallopian Technique

    Answer: A


    Q170

    In ZIFT, transferred stage is:

    A) Ovum
    B) Sperm
    C) Zygote or embryo up to 8 blastomeres
    D) Blastocyst

    Answer: C


    Q171

    Embryo Transfer (ET) is done when embryo has:

    A) 2 blastomeres
    B) 4 blastomeres
    C) Up to 8 blastomeres
    D) More than 8 blastomeres

    Answer: D


    Q172

    GIFT is suitable for women who:

    A) Cannot produce ova
    B) Have blocked oviducts only
    C) Have no uterus
    D) Have AIDS

    Answer: A


    Q173

    GIFT stands for:

    A) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
    B) Genetic Intra Fallopian Transfer
    C) Germinal Internal Fertility Transfer
    D) Gamete Internal Fertility Technique

    Answer: A


    Q174

    ICSI is mainly recommended when:

    A) Severe male infertility exists
    B) Ovulation is absent
    C) Uterus is absent
    D) Menstruation is absent

    Answer: A


    Q175

    ICSI involves:

    A) Injection of ovum into sperm
    B) Injection of sperm into ovum
    C) Transfer of embryo into uterus
    D) Transfer of gametes into oviduct

    Answer: B


    Q176

    Artificial insemination (AI) involves:

    A) Introduction of semen into female reproductive tract
    B) Embryo transfer
    C) Zygote transfer
    D) Gamete transfer

    Answer: A


    Q177

    Amniocentesis is carried out for:

    A) MTP
    B) Prenatal diagnosis
    C) Contraception
    D) ART

    Answer: B


    Q178

    Amniocentesis can help detect:

    A) Chromosomal disorders
    B) Genetic disorders
    C) Metabolic disorders
    D) All of these

    Answer: D


    Q179

    Why was misuse of amniocentesis banned?

    A) High cost
    B) Infection risk
    C) Female foeticide
    D) Low accuracy

    Answer: C


    Q180

    Medical termination of pregnancy is generally safer during:

    A) First trimester
    B) Second trimester
    C) Third trimester
    D) After delivery

    Answer: A

    ๐Ÿ”ฅ NEET NCERT Traps (Must Learn)

    ART Sequence

    • IVF → Fertilization outside body
    • ZIFT → Zygote/≤8 blastomere → Oviduct
    • ET → >8 blastomere embryo → Uterus
    • GIFT → Gamete → Oviduct
    • ICSI → Sperm directly injected into ovum

    STDs in NCERT

    • Gonorrhoea
    • Syphilis
    • Chlamydiasis
    • Trichomoniasis
    • Genital herpes
    • Genital warts
    • Hepatitis-B
    • AIDS

    Very Important NCERT Line

    "Though all persons are reproductively healthy, they may not be fertile, and vice versa."

    เคฏเคน เคฒाเค‡เคจ NEET เคฎें statement-based เคช्เคฐเคถ्เคจ เค•े เคฐूเคช เคฎें เคฌाเคฐ-เคฌाเคฐ เคฌเคจ เคธเค•เคคी เคนै।

    Reproductive Health – Q181–200 (NEET NCERT Toughest Level)

    Q181

    Read the following statements:

    1. Reproductive health includes physical well-being.
    2. Reproductive health includes emotional well-being.
    3. Reproductive health includes social well-being.
    4. Reproductive health includes behavioural well-being.

    How many statements are correct?

    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 4

    Answer: D


    Q182

    Which of the following are objectives of RCH programmes?

    1. Creating awareness
    2. Providing facilities and support
    3. Building a reproductively healthy society

    A) 1 and 2 only
    B) 2 and 3 only
    C) 1 and 3 only
    D) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: D


    Q183

    Which statement is incorrect regarding population explosion?

    A) Decline in death rate contributes to population growth. B) Better health facilities increase survival. C) Population explosion decreases demand for resources. D) Family planning helps population stabilization.

    Answer: C


    Q184

    Which one is NOT a natural contraceptive method?

    A) Periodic abstinence
    B) Coitus interruptus
    C) Lactational amenorrhea
    D) Diaphragm

    Answer: D


    Q185

    The major limitation of natural methods is:

    A) Expensive B) Less reliable due to high chance of failure C) Surgical procedure needed D) Permanent infertility

    Answer: B


    Q186

    Match the following:

    Column I Column II
    A. Lippe's Loop 1. Hormone-releasing IUD
    B. LNG-20 2. Non-medicated IUD
    C. Cu-T 3. Copper-releasing IUD

    A) A-2, B-1, C-3
    B) A-3, B-1, C-2
    C) A-2, B-3, C-1
    D) A-1, B-2, C-3

    Answer: A


    Q187

    Which statement regarding copper IUDs is correct?

    A) They inhibit spermatogenesis. B) They increase phagocytosis of sperms. C) They induce ovulation. D) They remove embryos.

    Answer: B


    Q188

    Hormone-releasing IUDs additionally:

    A) Increase menstrual flow B) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation C) Promote fertilization D) Increase sperm motility

    Answer: B


    Q189

    Which statement regarding Saheli is incorrect?

    A) It is non-steroidal. B) Developed by CDRI, Lucknow. C) It is a weekly oral pill. D) It is a copper-releasing IUD.

    Answer: D


    Q190

    According to NCERT, one of the best protections against STDs is:

    A) Multiple partners B) Barrier methods like condoms C) Hormonal pills D) MTP

    Answer: B


    Q191

    Which STD is caused by a protozoan?

    A) Syphilis B) Gonorrhoea C) Trichomoniasis D) AIDS

    Answer: C


    Q192

    Which of the following are viral STDs?

    1. AIDS
    2. Genital herpes
    3. Hepatitis-B

    A) 1 and 2 only
    B) 2 and 3 only
    C) 1 and 3 only
    D) 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: D


    Q193

    Early detection and complete cure are possible in:

    A) AIDS only B) Gonorrhoea and Syphilis C) Genital herpes only D) Hepatitis-B only

    Answer: B


    Q194

    Which statement is correct?

    A) All STDs show severe symptoms immediately. B) STDs always cause infertility. C) Many STDs remain asymptomatic in early stages. D) All STDs are incurable.

    Answer: C


    Q195

    In GIFT, the transferred structure is:

    A) Embryo >8 blastomeres B) Zygote C) Gamete D) Blastocyst

    Answer: C


    Q196

    In ZIFT, the transfer occurs into:

    A) Uterus B) Cervix C) Oviduct D) Ovary

    Answer: C


    Q197

    Which ART technique directly bypasses many sperm-related problems?

    A) ET B) GIFT C) ICSI D) AI

    Answer: C


    Q198

    Amniocentesis involves analysis of:

    A) Blood B) Urine C) Amniotic fluid D) Semen

    Answer: C


    Q199

    Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is commonly advised when:

    A) Pregnancy is unwanted or poses health risks B) Ovulation occurs normally C) Menstruation stops D) Fertility increases

    Answer: A


    Q200

    Which of the following NCERT statements is correct?

    A) All fertile persons are reproductively healthy. B) All reproductively healthy persons are fertile. C) Reproductive health and fertility are identical. D) Reproductively healthy persons may not necessarily be fertile and vice versa.

    Answer: D

    ๐Ÿšจ Important Correction for NEET

    เคเค• NCERT เคฒाเค‡เคจ เค•ो เค…เค•्เคธเคฐ เค—เคฒเคค เคฏाเคฆ เค•िเคฏा เคœाเคคा เคนै:

    Correct NCERT idea:

    Reproductive health and fertility are not the same thing.

    เค‡เคธเคฒिเค:

    • Fertile person ≠ necessarily reproductively healthy
    • Reproductively healthy person ≠ necessarily fertile

    เคฏเคนी concept NEET เคฎें statement-based เคช्เคฐเคถ्เคจ เค•े เคฐूเคช เคฎें เคฌเคนुเคค เคชเคธंเคฆ เค•िเคฏा เคœाเคคा เคนै।

    All the best, comment me for if you need any notes questions.

  • ๐Ÿ”ฅ Reproductive Health – Top 50 Most Expected Questions for NEET 2027

    (NCERT Line-by-Line + PYQ Trend Analysis)

    Q1

    India initiated national-level programmes related to reproductive health in:

    A) 1947
    B) 1950
    C) 1951
    D) 1952

    Ans: C


    Q2

    Reproductive health includes:

    A) Physical well-being only B) Physical and emotional well-being only C) Physical, emotional, behavioural and social well-being D) Fertility only

    Ans: C


    Q3

    Which statement is correct?

    A) All fertile persons are reproductively healthy. B) All reproductively healthy persons are fertile. C) Reproductive health and fertility are identical. D) Reproductive health and fertility are not necessarily the same.

    Ans: D


    Q4

    Which contraceptive method protects against STDs including AIDS?

    A) Cu-T B) Saheli C) Condom D) Tubectomy

    Ans: C


    Q5

    Which is NOT a natural contraceptive method?

    A) Periodic abstinence B) Coitus interruptus C) Lactational amenorrhea D) Cervical cap

    Ans: D


    Q6

    Lactational amenorrhea is effective because:

    A) Ovulation is absent B) Sperm production stops C) Implantation stops D) Menstruation increases

    Ans: A


    Q7

    The fertile period in a 28-day cycle is approximately:

    A) Day 1–5 B) Day 8–17 C) Day 18–28 D) Day 20–25

    Ans: B


    Q8

    Which one is a barrier method?

    A) Cu-T B) Saheli C) Condom D) Vasectomy

    Ans: C


    Q9

    Lippe's Loop is:

    A) Copper IUD B) Hormone IUD C) Non-medicated IUD D) Oral pill

    Ans: C


    Q10

    Which is a copper-releasing IUD?

    A) LNG-20 B) Progestasert C) Cu-T D) Saheli

    Ans: C


    Q11

    Hormone-releasing IUD is:

    A) Cu-7 B) Multiload-375 C) LNG-20 D) Lippe's Loop

    Ans: C


    Q12

    Copper ions released from Cu-T:

    A) Increase ovulation B) Suppress sperm motility C) Increase fertilisation D) Increase implantation

    Ans: B


    Q13

    Saheli was developed by:

    A) WHO B) AIIMS C) CDRI Lucknow D) NCERT

    Ans: C


    Q14

    Saheli is:

    A) Steroidal pill B) Non-steroidal oral pill C) Copper IUD D) Injectable contraceptive

    Ans: B


    Q15

    Vasectomy involves cutting:

    A) Oviduct B) Urethra C) Vas deferens D) Epididymis

    Ans: C


    Q16

    Tubectomy involves cutting:

    A) Vas deferens B) Fallopian tubes C) Urethra D) Cervix

    Ans: B


    Q17

    Which STD is bacterial?

    A) AIDS B) Genital herpes C) Gonorrhoea D) Hepatitis-B

    Ans: C


    Q18

    Syphilis is caused by:

    A) HIV B) Treponema pallidum C) HSV D) HBV

    Ans: B


    Q19

    Gonorrhoea is caused by:

    A) Treponema pallidum B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae C) HIV D) HSV

    Ans: B


    Q20

    AIDS is caused by:

    A) HBV B) HSV C) HIV D) HPV

    Ans: C


    Q21

    Which STD is protozoan?

    A) AIDS B) Gonorrhoea C) Trichomoniasis D) Syphilis

    Ans: C


    Q22

    Which of the following are viral STDs?

    1. AIDS
    2. Hepatitis-B
    3. Genital herpes

    A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 C) 2 and 3 D) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans: D


    Q23

    Untreated STDs may cause:

    A) Infertility B) PID C) Ectopic pregnancy D) All of these

    Ans: D


    Q24

    ART stands for:

    A) Artificial Reproductive Technology B) Assisted Reproductive Technologies C) Assisted Reproductive Therapy D) Advanced Reproductive Treatment

    Ans: B


    Q25

    IVF means:

    A) Internal fertilisation B) In vitro fertilisation C) Induced fertilisation D) In vivo fertilisation

    Ans: B


    Q26

    Fertilisation in IVF occurs:

    A) Ovary B) Oviduct C) Laboratory D) Uterus

    Ans: C


    Q27

    ZIFT stands for:

    A) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer B) Zygote Internal Fertility Transfer C) Zygote Implantation Transfer D) None

    Ans: A


    Q28

    In ZIFT, transferred structure is:

    A) Gamete B) Zygote/early embryo up to 8 blastomeres C) Blastocyst D) Sperm

    Ans: B


    Q29

    Embryo (>8 blastomeres) is transferred into:

    A) Ovary B) Oviduct C) Uterus D) Cervix

    Ans: C


    Q30

    GIFT involves transfer of:

    A) Embryo B) Zygote C) Gamete D) Sperm only

    Ans: C


    Q31

    ICSI stands for:

    A) Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection B) Internal Cytoplasmic Sperm Implantation C) Intracellular Sperm Injection D) Internal Cell Sperm Injection

    Ans: A


    Q32

    ICSI is especially useful in:

    A) Severe male infertility B) Female infertility only C) Pregnancy diagnosis D) MTP

    Ans: A


    Q33

    Artificial insemination involves:

    A) Introduction of semen into female reproductive tract B) Embryo transfer C) Gamete transfer D) Zygote transfer

    Ans: A


    Q34

    Amniocentesis is used for:

    A) Prenatal diagnosis B) Contraception C) Sterilisation D) ART

    Ans: A


    Q35

    Amniocentesis analyses:

    A) Blood B) Urine C) Amniotic fluid D) Semen

    Ans: C


    Q36

    Misuse of amniocentesis led to:

    A) Population explosion B) Female foeticide C) Increased fertility D) STDs

    Ans: B


    Q37

    MTP stands for:

    A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy B) Maternal Treatment Programme C) Medical Therapy Procedure D) Maternal Transfer Process

    Ans: A


    Q38

    MTP is safest during:

    A) First trimester B) Second trimester C) Third trimester D) After delivery

    Ans: A


    Q39

    Which pair is correctly matched?

    A) Lippe's Loop – Hormonal IUD B) Cu-T – Copper IUD C) Saheli – Barrier method D) Condom – Surgical method

    Ans: B


    Q40

    Which is NOT an IUD?

    A) LNG-20 B) Cu-T C) Lippe's Loop D) Condom

    Ans: D


    Q41–50 Rapid Fire

    1. Cu-T increases phagocytosis of sperms. ✅ True
    2. Hormonal IUDs make uterus unsuitable for implantation. ✅ True
    3. Condom is the only NCERT-highlighted contraceptive protecting against STDs. ✅ True
    4. Vasectomy is a male sterilisation method. ✅ True
    5. Tubectomy is a female sterilisation method. ✅ True
    6. ZIFT → Oviduct. ✅ True
    7. ET (>8 blastomeres) → Uterus. ✅ True
    8. GIFT → Gamete transfer. ✅ True
    9. ICSI → Sperm injected into ovum. ✅ True
    10. India was among the first countries to start national reproductive health programmes. ✅ True

    ๐Ÿšจ Final NEET Revision

    เค…เค—เคฐ Reproductive Health เคธे เคธिเคฐ्เคซ 10 เคšीเคœें เคฏाเคฆ เคฐเค–เคจी เคนों:

    1. 1951 – India's national programme.
    2. Saheli – Non-steroidal pill, CDRI Lucknow.
    3. Lippe's Loop – Non-medicated IUD.
    4. Cu-T/Cu-7/Multiload-375 – Copper IUDs.
    5. LNG-20/Progestasert – Hormonal IUDs.
    6. Condom – Prevents STDs + pregnancy.
    7. ZIFT – Zygote → Oviduct.
    8. ET – >8 blastomere embryo → Uterus.
    9. GIFT – Gamete → Oviduct.
    10. ICSI – Sperm directly into ovum.

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