Life Processes MCQs with Answers (200 Questions) | Class 10 Science NCERT & PYQ Based

 

200+ MCQs ko 2 parts (100+100) mein .

📘 Part 1 (Q1–Q100)

Topics Covered:

  • Nutrition
  • Human Digestive System
  • Respiration
  • Human Respiratory System
  • Transportation in Humans
  • Blood, Lymph, Heart
  • Transportation in Plants

📗 Part 2 (Q101–Q200)

Topics Covered:

  • Excretion in Humans
  • Excretion in Plants
  • Mixed Concept Questions
  • Assertion-Reason
  • Case-Based Questions
  • Previous Year Pattern Questions
  • NCERT Line-Based Traps

  • full chapter detail notes  for board exam 

  • https://www.learnwithafsa.online/2026/05/life-processes-class-10-notes.html

Life Processes MCQ Test (Part 1: Q1–Q20)

Q1. Which enzyme is present in saliva?

A) Pepsin B) Trypsin C) Salivary amylase D) Lipase

Answer: C
📖 Salivary amylase starts digestion of starch in the mouth.


Q2. The inner lining of the stomach secretes:

A) Bile B) Gastric juice C) Pancreatic juice D) Saliva

Answer: B
📖 Gastric glands secrete HCl, pepsin and mucus.


Q3. Which acid is present in gastric juice?

A) Sulphuric acid B) Nitric acid C) Hydrochloric acid D) Acetic acid

Answer: C


Q4. Bile juice is produced by:

A) Pancreas B) Liver C) Stomach D) Gall bladder

Answer: B


Q5. The largest gland in the human body is:

A) Pancreas B) Thyroid C) Liver D) Pituitary

Answer: C


Q6. Digestion of proteins begins in:

A) Mouth B) Stomach C) Small intestine D) Large intestine

Answer: B


Q7. The functional unit of kidney is:

A) Neuron B) Nephron C) Alveolus D) Villus

Answer: B


Q8. Exchange of gases takes place in:

A) Trachea B) Bronchi C) Alveoli D) Larynx

Answer: C


Q9. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart?

A) Pulmonary artery B) Aorta C) Pulmonary vein D) Vena cava

Answer: C


Q10. Human heart has:

A) 2 chambers B) 3 chambers C) 4 chambers D) 5 chambers

Answer: C


Q11. Blood pressure is measured using:

A) Stethoscope B) Thermometer C) Sphygmomanometer D) Barometer

Answer: C


Q12. Which pigment carries oxygen in blood?

A) Melanin B) Haemoglobin C) Chlorophyll D) Myoglobin

Answer: B


Q13. Double circulation is found in:

A) Fish B) Frog C) Human D) Shark

Answer: C


Q14. Water is transported in plants through:

A) Phloem B) Xylem C) Cortex D) Epidermis

Answer: B


Q15. Food is transported in plants by:

A) Xylem B) Phloem C) Cambium D) Cortex

Answer: B


Q16. The energy currency of the cell is:

A) DNA B) ATP C) RNA D) ADP

Answer: B


Q17. Aerobic respiration occurs in:

A) Cytoplasm only B) Mitochondria C) Nucleus D) Ribosome

Answer: B


Q18. The end products of aerobic respiration are:

A) Alcohol + CO₂ B) Lactic acid C) CO₂ + H₂O + Energy D) Glucose

Answer: C


Q19. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body?

A) Right atrium B) Right ventricle C) Left atrium D) Left ventricle

Answer: D


Q20. The filtration of blood occurs in:

A) Ureter B) Urinary bladder C) Nephron D) Urethra

Answer: C


🔥 Important PYQ Traps

  • Liver produces bile; gall bladder stores it.
  • Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood (exception).
  • Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood (exception).
  • Nephron = functional unit of kidney.
  • Alveoli = site of gas exchange.
  • Xylem → water transport.
  • Phloem → food transport
  • 📘 Life Processes MCQs (Part 1 Continued: Q21–Q50)

    NCERT Based | PYQ Pattern | Answers + Explanations


    Q21. Which part of the alimentary canal is the longest?

    A) Stomach
    B) Oesophagus
    C) Small intestine
    D) Large intestine

    Answer: C
    📖 Small intestine is about 6–7 m long and is the main site of digestion and absorption.


    Q22. Villi are present in:

    A) Stomach
    B) Small intestine
    C) Large intestine
    D) Oesophagus

    Answer: B
    📖 Villi increase the surface area for absorption of digested food.


    Q23. Which enzyme digests proteins in the stomach?

    A) Amylase
    B) Lipase
    C) Pepsin
    D) Maltase

    Answer: C


    Q24. Which nutrient is mainly digested by lipase?

    A) Protein
    B) Fat
    C) Starch
    D) Vitamins

    Answer: B


    Q25. Anaerobic respiration in muscles produces:

    A) Alcohol
    B) Carbon dioxide
    C) Lactic acid
    D) Glucose

    Answer: C


    Q26. The process of breaking down food to release energy is:

    A) Digestion
    B) Respiration
    C) Circulation
    D) Excretion

    Answer: B


    Q27. The blood vessel carrying blood from heart to lungs is:

    A) Aorta
    B) Pulmonary artery
    C) Pulmonary vein
    D) Vena cava

    Answer: B


    Q28. Which component of blood helps in clotting?

    A) RBCs
    B) WBCs
    C) Plasma
    D) Platelets

    Answer: D


    Q29. White blood cells help in:

    A) Oxygen transport
    B) Blood clotting
    C) Defense against infection
    D) Food transport

    Answer: C


    Q30. The liquid part of blood is:

    A) Plasma
    B) Serum
    C) Lymph
    D) Platelets

    Answer: A


    Q31. Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from lungs?

    A) Right atrium
    B) Right ventricle
    C) Left atrium
    D) Left ventricle

    Answer: C


    Q32. The valve between left atrium and left ventricle prevents:

    A) Oxygen loss
    B) Backflow of blood
    C) Clotting
    D) Mixing of blood

    Answer: B


    Q33. Blood pressure of a healthy adult is approximately:

    A) 80/120 mm Hg
    B) 120/80 mm Hg
    C) 140/100 mm Hg
    D) 100/60 mm Hg

    Answer: B


    Q34. Which tissue transports food in plants?

    A) Xylem
    B) Phloem
    C) Epidermis
    D) Cortex

    Answer: B


    Q35. Translocation in plants occurs through:

    A) Xylem
    B) Phloem
    C) Stomata
    D) Root hairs

    Answer: B


    Q36. Loss of water in the form of vapour from aerial parts is:

    A) Respiration
    B) Guttation
    C) Transpiration
    D) Photosynthesis

    Answer: C


    Q37. Opening and closing of stomata is controlled by:

    A) Root hairs
    B) Guard cells
    C) Xylem cells
    D) Phloem cells

    Answer: B


    Q38. The main nitrogenous waste in humans is:

    A) Ammonia
    B) Urea
    C) Uric acid
    D) Carbon dioxide

    Answer: B


    Q39. Urine formation occurs in:

    A) Ureter
    B) Urinary bladder
    C) Nephron
    D) Urethra

    Answer: C


    Q40. The tube carrying urine from kidney to bladder is:

    A) Urethra
    B) Nephron
    C) Ureter
    D) Renal artery

    Answer: C


    Q41. The organ that stores urine is:

    A) Kidney
    B) Ureter
    C) Urinary bladder
    D) Urethra

    Answer: C


    Q42. Which process removes metabolic wastes from the body?

    A) Digestion
    B) Respiration
    C) Excretion
    D) Circulation

    Answer: C


    Q43. Lymph mainly functions in:

    A) Oxygen transport
    B) Food transport only
    C) Returning tissue fluid to blood
    D) Digestion

    Answer: C


    Q44. Which blood vessel has the thickest wall?

    A) Vein
    B) Capillary
    C) Artery
    D) Venule

    Answer: C


    Q45. Exchange of substances between blood and cells occurs through:

    A) Arteries
    B) Veins
    C) Capillaries
    D) Aorta

    Answer: C


    Q46. Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?

    A) Transport of gases
    B) Transport of nutrients
    C) Transport of hormones
    D) Photosynthesis

    Answer: D


    Q47. During vigorous exercise, muscles perform:

    A) Only aerobic respiration
    B) Only photosynthesis
    C) Anaerobic respiration also
    D) No respiration

    Answer: C


    Q48. The movement of food from leaves to other parts of the plant is called:

    A) Transpiration
    B) Translocation
    C) Absorption
    D) Respiration

    Answer: B


    Q49. Which structure prevents food from entering the windpipe?

    A) Trachea
    B) Bronchus
    C) Epiglottis
    D) Alveolus

    Answer: C


    Q50. Which statement is correct?

    A) Xylem transports food
    B) Phloem transports water
    C) Xylem transports water and minerals
    D) Stomata transport food

    Answer: C

    📖 Explanation: Xylem carries water and minerals from roots to aerial parts of the plant.


    🎯 High-Yield NCERT Facts (Frequently Asked)

    ✅ Villi → Absorption of food
    ✅ Pepsin → Protein digestion
    ✅ Lipase → Fat digestion
    ✅ Platelets → Blood clotting
    ✅ Pulmonary artery → Deoxygenated blood
    ✅ Pulmonary vein → Oxygenated blood
    ✅ Nephron → Functional unit of kidney
    ✅ Guard cells → Control stomata
    ✅ Urea → Main nitrogenous waste in humans
    ✅ Phloem → Translocation of food

  • 📘 Life Processes MCQs (Part 1 Continued: Q51–Q100)

    NCERT Based | PYQ Pattern | Tricky Questions with Answers & Explanations


    Q51. Which chamber of the heart has the thickest muscular wall?

    A) Right atrium
    B) Left atrium
    C) Right ventricle
    D) Left ventricle

    Answer: D
    📖 Left ventricle pumps blood to the entire body, so it has the thickest wall.


    Q52. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood to all body parts?

    A) Pulmonary artery
    B) Aorta
    C) Vena cava
    D) Pulmonary vein

    Answer: B


    Q53. The respiratory pigment present in RBCs is:

    A) Chlorophyll
    B) Myoglobin
    C) Haemoglobin
    D) Melanin

    Answer: C


    Q54. Which process occurs in alveoli?

    A) Digestion
    B) Gas exchange
    C) Filtration
    D) Absorption of nutrients

    Answer: B


    Q55. The opening of stomata is mainly due to:

    A) Shrinkage of guard cells
    B) Turgidity of guard cells
    C) Death of guard cells
    D) Growth of xylem

    Answer: B


    Q56. Which of the following is an excretory product in plants?

    A) Oxygen
    B) Resins
    C) Gums
    D) All of these

    Answer: D


    Q57. The process of taking in oxygen and giving out carbon dioxide is:

    A) Digestion
    B) Breathing
    C) Excretion
    D) Circulation

    Answer: B


    Q58. The actual breakdown of food to release energy occurs during:

    A) Breathing
    B) Ventilation
    C) Respiration
    D) Transpiration

    Answer: C


    Q59. Which organ secretes bile?

    A) Gall bladder
    B) Liver
    C) Pancreas
    D) Stomach

    Answer: B


    Q60. Gall bladder mainly functions to:

    A) Produce bile
    B) Store bile
    C) Digest fats
    D) Absorb glucose

    Answer: B


    Q61. Pancreatic juice contains enzymes for digestion of:

    A) Carbohydrates only
    B) Proteins only
    C) Fats only
    D) Carbohydrates, proteins and fats

    Answer: D


    Q62. Which structure prevents backflow of blood in veins?

    A) Septum
    B) Valves
    C) Platelets
    D) Capillaries

    Answer: B


    Q63. The separation between right and left sides of the heart is due to:

    A) Valve
    B) Septum
    C) Aorta
    D) Atrium

    Answer: B


    Q64. Which of the following does NOT contain blood?

    A) Artery
    B) Vein
    C) Capillary
    D) Trachea

    Answer: D


    Q65. Which gas is transported mainly by haemoglobin?

    A) Nitrogen
    B) Oxygen
    C) Hydrogen
    D) Helium

    Answer: B


    Q66. Root pressure helps in:

    A) Food transport
    B) Water movement upward
    C) Photosynthesis
    D) Respiration

    Answer: B


    Q67. Which part of nephron performs filtration?

    A) Loop of Henle
    B) Collecting duct
    C) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
    D) Ureter

    Answer: C


    Q68. Reabsorption of useful substances occurs mainly in:

    A) Urethra
    B) Tubules of nephron
    C) Urinary bladder
    D) Ureter

    Answer: B


    Q69. Assertion (A): Arteries have thick elastic walls.

    Reason (R): Blood flows through them under high pressure.

    A) Both true and R explains A
    B) Both true but R doesn't explain A
    C) A true, R false
    D) A false, R true

    Answer: A


    Q70. Assertion (A): Veins have valves.

    Reason (R): Blood pressure in veins is low.

    A) Both true and R explains A
    B) Both true but R doesn't explain A
    C) A true, R false
    D) A false, R true

    Answer: A


    Q71. Which blood group is called the universal donor?

    A) A
    B) B
    C) AB
    D) O

    Answer: D


    Q72. Which blood group is called the universal recipient?

    A) O
    B) AB
    C) A
    D) B

    Answer: B


    Q73. The contraction of the heart is called:

    A) Diastole
    B) Systole
    C) Diffusion
    D) Osmosis

    Answer: B


    Q74. The relaxation phase of heart is:

    A) Systole
    B) Diastole
    C) Respiration
    D) Ventilation

    Answer: B


    Q75. Which of the following transports minerals from roots?

    A) Phloem
    B) Xylem
    C) Stomata
    D) Cortex

    Answer: B


    Q76. In humans, digestion is completed in:

    A) Mouth
    B) Stomach
    C) Small intestine
    D) Large intestine

    Answer: C


    Q77. Which vitamin is produced by bacteria in the large intestine?

    A) Vitamin A
    B) Vitamin C
    C) Vitamin K
    D) Vitamin D

    Answer: C


    Q78. The absorption of water mainly occurs in:

    A) Stomach
    B) Small intestine
    C) Large intestine
    D) Oesophagus

    Answer: C


    Q79. Which process requires ATP?

    A) Diffusion only
    B) Osmosis only
    C) Active transport
    D) Evaporation

    Answer: C


    Q80. Food moves through oesophagus by:

    A) Diffusion
    B) Peristalsis
    C) Osmosis
    D) Filtration

    Answer: B


    Q81. Which of the following is NOT a digestive enzyme?

    A) Pepsin
    B) Trypsin
    C) Lipase
    D) Bile

    Answer: D

    📖 Bile helps emulsify fats but is not an enzyme.


    Q82. Emulsification of fats occurs in:

    A) Stomach
    B) Mouth
    C) Small intestine
    D) Large intestine

    Answer: C


    Q83. Which structure increases absorption area in the small intestine?

    A) Alveoli
    B) Villi
    C) Nephrons
    D) Bronchi

    Answer: B


    Q84. The transport of oxygen in blood is mainly done by:

    A) Plasma
    B) WBCs
    C) RBCs
    D) Platelets

    Answer: C


    Q85. Which component fights infection?

    A) RBCs
    B) WBCs
    C) Platelets
    D) Plasma

    Answer: B


    Q86. Which structure filters blood in kidney?

    A) Alveolus
    B) Villus
    C) Glomerulus
    D) Atrium

    Answer: C


    Q87. The blood entering kidneys is carried by:

    A) Renal vein
    B) Renal artery
    C) Ureter
    D) Urethra

    Answer: B


    Q88. Which organ removes excess water and salts?

    A) Heart
    B) Liver
    C) Kidney
    D) Pancreas

    Answer: C


    Q89. The process of losing water vapour through stomata is:

    A) Guttation
    B) Respiration
    C) Transpiration
    D) Digestion

    Answer: C


    Q90. Which force is mainly responsible for ascent of sap?

    A) Gravity
    B) Transpiration pull
    C) Diffusion
    D) Osmosis

    Answer: B


    Q91. The exchange of gases in plants occurs mainly through:

    A) Xylem
    B) Phloem
    C) Stomata and lenticels
    D) Roots only

    Answer: C


    Q92. Which process removes CO₂ from the body?

    A) Digestion
    B) Exhalation
    C) Circulation
    D) Filtration

    Answer: B


    Q93. Which organ is common to both digestive and respiratory systems?

    A) Pharynx
    B) Stomach
    C) Alveoli
    D) Liver

    Answer: A


    Q94. During inhalation, ribs move:

    A) Downward and inward
    B) Upward and outward
    C) Downward and outward
    D) No movement

    Answer: B


    Q95. During exhalation, diaphragm becomes:

    A) Flat
    B) Contracted
    C) Dome-shaped
    D) Enlarged

    Answer: C


    Q96. Which of the following is correctly matched?

    A) Xylem – Food transport
    B) Phloem – Water transport
    C) Nephron – Kidney unit
    D) Alveoli – Digestion

    Answer: C


    Q97. Which life process is essential for obtaining energy from food?

    A) Excretion
    B) Respiration
    C) Transportation
    D) Transpiration

    Answer: B


    Q98. Blood is a type of:

    A) Epithelial tissue
    B) Connective tissue
    C) Nervous tissue
    D) Muscular tissue

    Answer: B


    Q99. Which one is the correct sequence of urine flow?

    A) Kidney → Ureter → Urinary Bladder → Urethra
    B) Kidney → Urethra → Ureter → Bladder
    C) Ureter → Kidney → Bladder → Urethra
    D) Kidney → Bladder → Ureter → Urethra

    Answer: A


    Q100. Which statement is correct?

    A) Phloem transports water only
    B) Xylem transports food only
    C) Nephron is the functional unit of kidney
    D) Alveoli are present in heart

    Answer: C

    📖 Explanation: Nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney and is one of the most frequently asked NCERT facts.

    🚀 Quick Revision of Most Repeated PYQs

    • Nephron = Functional unit of kidney
    • Alveoli = Site of gas exchange
    • Villi = Site of absorption
    • Pepsin = Protein digestion
    • Bile = Emulsification of fats
    • Xylem = Water & mineral transport
    • Phloem = Food transport
    • Left ventricle = Thickest chamber
    • Pulmonary vein = Oxygenated blood
    • Pulmonary artery = Deoxygenated blood
    • Transpiration pull = Ascent of sap
    • RBC = Oxygen transport
    • WBC = Immunity
    • Platelets = Clotting

  • 📗 Life Processes MCQs (Part 2: Q101–Q150)

    NCERT Based | PYQ-Inspired | Assertion-Reason | Tricky Questions


    Q101. Assertion (A): Photosynthesis and respiration are complementary processes.

    Reason (R): Products of one are raw materials for the other.

    A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
    B) Both true but R doesn't explain A
    C) A true, R false
    D) A false, R true

    Answer: A

    📖 Products of photosynthesis (glucose, O₂) are used in respiration, while CO₂ and H₂O from respiration are used in photosynthesis.


    Q102. Which of the following is absorbed without digestion?

    A) Proteins
    B) Starch
    C) Vitamins
    D) Fats

    Answer: C


    Q103. Which part of alimentary canal receives bile and pancreatic juice?

    A) Stomach
    B) Duodenum
    C) Ileum
    D) Colon

    Answer: B


    Q104. The semi-digested food leaving the stomach is called:

    A) Bolus
    B) Chyme
    C) Faeces
    D) Plasma

    Answer: B


    Q105. Which enzyme converts starch into maltose?

    A) Lipase
    B) Pepsin
    C) Amylase
    D) Trypsin

    Answer: C


    Q106. Assertion (A): Human heart prevents mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.

    Reason (R): Human heart is four-chambered.

    A) Both true and R explains A
    B) Both true but R doesn't explain A
    C) A true, R false
    D) A false, R true

    Answer: A


    Q107. Which chamber receives deoxygenated blood from the body?

    A) Left atrium
    B) Left ventricle
    C) Right atrium
    D) Right ventricle

    Answer: C


    Q108. Which vessel carries blood from right ventricle to lungs?

    A) Aorta
    B) Pulmonary artery
    C) Pulmonary vein
    D) Vena cava

    Answer: B


    Q109. Blood consists of:

    A) Plasma only
    B) RBCs only
    C) Plasma and blood cells
    D) Platelets only

    Answer: C


    Q110. Which component transports hormones?

    A) RBCs
    B) Plasma
    C) Platelets
    D) WBCs

    Answer: B


    Q111. Which structure in plants is mainly responsible for water absorption?

    A) Root cap
    B) Root hairs
    C) Cortex
    D) Phloem

    Answer: B


    Q112. Transpiration helps in:

    A) Photosynthesis only
    B) Water absorption only
    C) Ascent of sap and cooling
    D) Digestion

    Answer: C


    Q113. Which nitrogenous waste requires maximum water for excretion?

    A) Urea
    B) Uric acid
    C) Ammonia
    D) Creatinine

    Answer: C


    Q114. Human beings are:

    A) Ammonotelic
    B) Uricotelic
    C) Ureotelic
    D) None

    Answer: C


    Q115. Which process is responsible for movement of food through alimentary canal?

    A) Diffusion
    B) Osmosis
    C) Peristalsis
    D) Filtration

    Answer: C


    Q116. The epiglottis prevents food from entering:

    A) Oesophagus
    B) Trachea
    C) Stomach
    D) Intestine

    Answer: B


    Q117. Which digestive juice does not contain enzymes?

    A) Saliva
    B) Gastric juice
    C) Bile juice
    D) Pancreatic juice

    Answer: C


    Q118. Bile helps in digestion by:

    A) Breaking proteins
    B) Breaking starch
    C) Emulsifying fats
    D) Producing glucose

    Answer: C


    Q119. The blood leaving kidneys through renal vein is:

    A) Purified blood
    B) Oxygen-free blood only
    C) Undigested blood
    D) Lymph

    Answer: A


    Q120. Which structure is known as the filtration unit of kidney?

    A) Neuron
    B) Nephron
    C) Villus
    D) Alveolus

    Answer: B


    Q121. Assertion (A): Veins carry blood toward the heart.

    Reason (R): Veins always carry deoxygenated blood.

    A) A true, R false
    B) A false, R true
    C) Both true
    D) Both false

    Answer: A

    📖 Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood.


    Q122. Which process releases the highest amount of energy?

    A) Anaerobic respiration
    B) Fermentation
    C) Aerobic respiration
    D) Digestion

    Answer: C


    Q123. ATP is synthesized mainly in:

    A) Ribosomes
    B) Nucleus
    C) Mitochondria
    D) Golgi body

    Answer: C


    Q124. Which gas is released during photosynthesis?

    A) CO₂
    B) O₂
    C) N₂
    D) H₂

    Answer: B


    Q125. The normal lifespan of human RBCs is about:

    A) 12 days
    B) 60 days
    C) 120 days
    D) 240 days

    Answer: C


    Q126. Which blood cells lack nucleus in humans?

    A) WBCs
    B) RBCs
    C) Platelets only
    D) Lymphocytes

    Answer: B


    Q127. Which blood cells directly help in immunity?

    A) RBCs
    B) WBCs
    C) Platelets
    D) Plasma

    Answer: B


    Q128. Which vessel has the lowest blood pressure?

    A) Aorta
    B) Arteries
    C) Veins
    D) Capillaries

    Answer: C


    Q129. The movement of molecules from high concentration to low concentration is:

    A) Osmosis
    B) Diffusion
    C) Active transport
    D) Filtration

    Answer: B


    Q130. Osmosis is movement of:

    A) Solute molecules
    B) Water molecules
    C) Minerals only
    D) Food only

    Answer: B


    Q131. Which tissue transports food in both directions?

    A) Xylem
    B) Phloem
    C) Epidermis
    D) Cork

    Answer: B


    Q132. Water transport in xylem is generally:

    A) Bidirectional
    B) Multidirectional
    C) Upward only
    D) Downward only

    Answer: C


    Q133. Which organ removes carbon dioxide?

    A) Kidney
    B) Skin
    C) Lungs
    D) Liver

    Answer: C


    Q134. Sweat glands help in:

    A) Digestion
    B) Excretion and temperature regulation
    C) Respiration
    D) Circulation

    Answer: B


    Q135. Which is NOT a function of liver?

    A) Bile secretion
    B) Detoxification
    C) Storage of glycogen
    D) Urine formation

    Answer: D


    Q136. The opening of stomata occurs when guard cells become:

    A) Flaccid
    B) Dead
    C) Turgid
    D) Dry

    Answer: C


    Q137. Which process helps maintain water balance in plants?

    A) Digestion
    B) Transpiration
    C) Fermentation
    D) Excretion

    Answer: B


    Q138. Which structure prevents mixing of blood in humans?

    A) Atrium
    B) Septum
    C) Valve
    D) Capillary

    Answer: B


    Q139. Double circulation means blood passes through the heart:

    A) Once in one cycle
    B) Twice in one cycle
    C) Thrice in one cycle
    D) Four times in one cycle

    Answer: B


    Q140. Which process forms urine?

    A) Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
    B) Digestion, absorption, assimilation
    C) Respiration, diffusion, excretion
    D) Ventilation, diffusion, circulation

    Answer: A


    Q141. Which part of nephron is cup-shaped?

    A) Loop of Henle
    B) Bowman's capsule
    C) Collecting duct
    D) Ureter

    Answer: B


    Q142. Excess amino acids are converted into:

    A) Glucose only
    B) Urea and other products
    C) Vitamins
    D) Starch

    Answer: B


    Q143. The largest amount of digestion occurs in:

    A) Mouth
    B) Stomach
    C) Small intestine
    D) Large intestine

    Answer: C


    Q144. Which enzyme acts in acidic medium?

    A) Pepsin
    B) Amylase
    C) Trypsin
    D) Lipase

    Answer: A


    Q145. Which enzyme acts in alkaline medium?

    A) Pepsin
    B) Trypsin
    C) HCl
    D) Mucus

    Answer: B


    Q146. Which process is directly responsible for absorption of water by roots?

    A) Diffusion
    B) Osmosis
    C) Respiration
    D) Photosynthesis

    Answer: B


    Q147. Which component of blood helps transport nutrients?

    A) Plasma
    B) RBCs
    C) Platelets
    D) WBCs

    Answer: A


    Q148. Which organ system is directly responsible for removal of metabolic wastes?

    A) Digestive system
    B) Respiratory system
    C) Excretory system
    D) Circulatory system

    Answer: C


    Q149. The main excretory organ in humans is:

    A) Liver
    B) Skin
    C) Kidney
    D) Lung

    Answer: C


    Q150. Which statement is CORRECT?

    A) Xylem transports food
    B) Phloem transports minerals only
    C) Nephron is the structural and functional unit of kidney
    D) Alveoli are present in stomach

    Answer: C

    📖.📘 Life Processes MCQs (Part 2 Continued: Q151–Q200)

NCERT Based | PYQ Pattern | Assertion-Reason | HOTS Questions


---

Q151. Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart?

A) Aorta
B) Pulmonary vein
C) Vena cava
D) Pulmonary artery

✅ Answer: C

📖 Vena cava brings deoxygenated blood into the right atrium.


---

Q152. The valve present between right atrium and right ventricle is:

A) Bicuspid valve
B) Tricuspid valve
C) Semilunar valve
D) Mitral valve

✅ Answer: B


---

Q153. Which of the following has the thinnest wall?

A) Artery
B) Vein
C) Capillary
D) Aorta

✅ Answer: C

📖 Capillaries are one-cell thick for efficient exchange.


---

Q154. The process by which cells utilize oxygen to release energy is:

A) Breathing
B) Digestion
C) Cellular respiration
D) Ventilation

✅ Answer: C


---

Q155. During inhalation:

A) Chest cavity volume decreases
B) Ribs move downward
C) Diaphragm contracts
D) Lungs shrink

✅ Answer: C


---

Q156. During exhalation:

A) Diaphragm contracts
B) Chest cavity expands
C) Diaphragm relaxes
D) Oxygen enters blood

✅ Answer: C


---

Q157. Which of the following is NOT transported by blood?

A) Oxygen
B) Hormones
C) Nutrients
D) Chlorophyll

✅ Answer: D


---

Q158. The pressure exerted by blood on artery walls is called:

A) Osmotic pressure
B) Root pressure
C) Blood pressure
D) Diffusion pressure

✅ Answer: C


---

Q159. A person with low haemoglobin is likely suffering from:

A) Diabetes
B) Anaemia
C) Hypertension
D) Asthma

✅ Answer: B


---

Q160. Which structure in plants regulates gaseous exchange?

A) Xylem
B) Phloem
C) Stomata
D) Cortex

✅ Answer: C


---

Q161. Assertion (A): Xylem consists mainly of dead cells.

Reason (R): Dead cells provide efficient water conduction.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R doesn't explain A
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true

✅ Answer: A


---

Q162. Which tissue contains sieve tubes?

A) Xylem
B) Phloem
C) Epidermis
D) Cortex

✅ Answer: B


---

Q163. The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis is called:

A) Translocation
B) Transpiration
C) Diffusion
D) Respiration

✅ Answer: A


---

Q164. Which organ removes excess salts and water through sweat?

A) Kidney
B) Lung
C) Skin
D) Liver

✅ Answer: C


---

Q165. The waste product excreted by lungs is:

A) Urea only
B) Carbon dioxide and water vapour
C) Uric acid
D) Ammonia

✅ Answer: B


---

Q166. Which of the following is an example of anaerobic respiration?

A) Respiration in human muscles during vigorous exercise
B) Respiration in lungs
C) Respiration in leaves
D) Respiration in roots

✅ Answer: A


---

Q167. The energy released during respiration is stored in:

A) DNA
B) ATP
C) RNA
D) Protein

✅ Answer: B


---

Q168. Which part of digestive system absorbs most nutrients?

A) Stomach
B) Large intestine
C) Small intestine
D) Rectum

✅ Answer: C


---

Q169. Which enzyme digests proteins in the small intestine?

A) Amylase
B) Trypsin
C) Lipase
D) Maltase

✅ Answer: B


---

Q170. The pH of stomach is acidic due to:

A) Bile
B) HCl
C) Saliva
D) Water

✅ Answer: B


---

Q171. Which statement is true?

A) Arteries always carry oxygenated blood
B) Veins always carry deoxygenated blood
C) Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood
D) Pulmonary vein carries deoxygenated blood

✅ Answer: C

📖 This is one of the most common NCERT traps.


---

Q172. The main function of platelets is:

A) Oxygen transport
B) Immunity
C) Blood clotting
D) Nutrient transport

✅ Answer: C


---

Q173. Which component of blood contains antibodies?

A) RBCs
B) WBCs and plasma
C) Platelets
D) Haemoglobin

✅ Answer: B


---

Q174. Blood group AB is called:

A) Universal donor
B) Universal recipient
C) Rare group
D) Rh-negative group

✅ Answer: B


---

Q175. Which of the following is not a blood vessel?

A) Aorta
B) Ureter
C) Vein
D) Capillary

✅ Answer: B


---

Q176. The opening and closing of stomata depend on:

A) Root pressure
B) Guard cells
C) Xylem pressure
D) Phloem pressure

✅ Answer: B


---

Q177. Which mineral is essential for haemoglobin formation?

A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Sodium
D) Potassium

✅ Answer: B


---

Q178. The movement of water through a semipermeable membrane is:

A) Diffusion
B) Osmosis
C) Active transport
D) Translocation

✅ Answer: B


---

Q179. The blood pressure in arteries is:

A) Lower than veins
B) Equal to veins
C) Higher than veins
D) Zero

✅ Answer: C


---

Q180. Which chamber pumps blood into the aorta?

A) Right atrium
B) Left atrium
C) Right ventricle
D) Left ventricle

✅ Answer: D


---

Q181. Assertion (A): Small intestine is highly coiled.

Reason (R): It increases surface area for digestion and absorption.

A) Both true and R explains A
B) Both true but R doesn't explain A
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true

✅ Answer: A


---

Q182. Which organ stores glycogen?

A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Kidney
D) Lung

✅ Answer: B


---

Q183. The liquid filtered from blood into Bowman's capsule is called:

A) Urine
B) Plasma
C) Glomerular filtrate
D) Lymph

✅ Answer: C


---

Q184. Which process removes nitrogenous wastes?

A) Digestion
B) Respiration
C) Excretion
D) Circulation

✅ Answer: C


---

Q185. Which of the following is NOT part of nephron?

A) Bowman's capsule
B) Loop of Henle
C) Glomerulus
D) Alveolus

✅ Answer: D


---

Q186. In plants, excess water is lost mainly through:

A) Roots
B) Stem
C) Stomata
D) Phloem

✅ Answer: C


---

Q187. Which life process provides energy for all cellular activities?

A) Digestion
B) Respiration
C) Excretion
D) Transportation

✅ Answer: B


---

Q188. The movement of food in phloem requires:

A) ATP
B) Sunlight only
C) Oxygen only
D) No energy

✅ Answer: A


---

Q189. Which organ is called the "master chemical factory" of the body?

A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Kidney
D) Stomach

✅ Answer: B


---

Q190. Which structure increases gas exchange surface in lungs?

A) Bronchi
B) Trachea
C) Alveoli
D) Larynx

✅ Answer: C


---

Q191. Which process is responsible for movement of water from roots to leaves?

A) Translocation
B) Transpiration pull
C) Digestion
D) Excretion

✅ Answer: B


---

Q192. The human heart is made of:

A) Smooth muscle
B) Skeletal muscle
C) Cardiac muscle
D) Connective tissue

✅ Answer: C


---

Q193. Which organ secretes insulin?

A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Kidney
D) Stomach

✅ Answer: B


---

Q194. Which of the following is a function of plasma?

A) Transport dissolved substances
B) Clot blood directly
C) Produce antibodies only
D) Carry oxygen only

✅ Answer: A


---

Q195. The waste product formed by breakdown of proteins is mainly:

A) Urea
B) Glucose
C) Oxygen
D) Glycogen

✅ Answer: A


---

Q196. Which structure separates thoracic and abdominal cavities?

A) Pleura
B) Diaphragm
C) Pericardium
D) Trachea

✅ Answer: B


---

Q197. Which process occurs continuously in living cells?

A) Digestion only
B) Respiration
C) Excretion only
D) Transportation only

✅ Answer: B


---

Q198. Which of the following correctly matches the process and site?

A) Filtration — Alveoli
B) Gas exchange — Nephron
C) Digestion — Small intestine
D) Respiration — Stomach

✅ Answer: C


---

Q199. The primary function of xylem is:

A) Food transport
B) Water and mineral transport
C) Gas exchange
D) Storage

✅ Answer: B


---

Q200. Which statement is CORRECT?

A) Phloem transports food from leaves to other parts of plant
B) Xylem transports prepared food
C) Alveoli are present in kidneys
D) Nephrons are present in lungs

✅ Answer: A

📖 Final NCERT PYQ Trap:
Xylem → Water & Minerals
Phloem → Food (Translocation)

🎯 Life Processes Final Revision (Must Memorize)

Villi → Absorption

Alveoli → Gas Exchange

Nephron → Functional Unit of Kidney

Xylem → Water Transport

Phloem → Food Transport

RBC → Oxygen Transport

WBC → Immunity

Platelets → Clotting

Pulmonary Artery → Deoxygenated Blood

Pulmonary Vein → Oxygenated Blood

ATP → Energy Currency

Pepsin → Protein Digestion

Lipase → Fat Digestion

Amylase → Starch Digestion

Urea → Main Nitrogenous Waste in Humans


🎉 Q1–Q200 complete. These cover the most important NCERT concepts, board-style questions, and PYQ-inspired traps from the Life Processes chapter.

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Class 10 Biology Heredity and Evolution Notes | CBSE Board 2026 NCERT PYQ, Diagrams & Important Questions

 

🧬 Class 10 Biology — Heredity and Evolution Complete Detailed Notes

CBSE Board 2026 | NCERT Based | PYQs | Important Questions | Tricks | Diagrams | Board Answers



📖 Introduction

Living organisms produce offspring that resemble their parents. This happens because traits are passed from one generation to another. This transmission of traits is called heredity.

At the same time, small differences also appear among organisms. These differences are called variations. Variations accumulate over generations and lead to evolution.


🌟 Important Definitions

Term Definition
Heredity Transmission of traits from parents to offspring
Variation Differences among individuals of same species
Evolution Gradual change in organisms over generations
Trait A characteristic feature
Gene Functional unit of heredity
Chromosome Thread-like structure carrying genes

🌟 Why Are Variations Important?

Variations are important because they:

  • Help organisms adapt to changing environment
  • Increase chances of survival
  • Form basis of evolution

🌟 Types of Variations

Type Example
Useful variation Long neck in giraffe
Harmful variation Genetic disease
Neutral variation Different eye colour

🧬 Heredity

Heredity is the process by which characteristics are transferred from parents to offspring through genes.


🌟 Examples of Hereditary Traits

  • Eye colour
  • Hair colour
  • Blood group
  • Height

🌟 Acquired Traits

Traits developed during an individual’s lifetime due to environmental effects or habits are called acquired traits.

Examples:

  • Bodybuilding muscles
  • Pierced ears
  • Learning skills

Acquired traits are not inherited because they do not affect genes.


🌟 Genes

Genes are small segments of DNA present on chromosomes that control traits.


🌟 DNA

Full Form:

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

DNA contains hereditary information.


🌟 Chromosomes

Chromosomes are thread-like structures present in nucleus carrying genes.

Humans have:

  • 46 chromosomes
  • 23 pairs of chromosomes

🧬 Gregor Mendel and His Experiments

Gregor Mendel is known as the Father of Genetics.

He performed experiments on pea plants to study inheritance.


🌟 Why Did Mendel Choose Pea Plants?

Reasons:

  1. Short life cycle
  2. Easily visible contrasting traits
  3. Naturally self-pollinating
  4. Easy to grow

🌟 Contrasting Traits Studied by Mendel

Character Dominant Trait Recessive Trait
Height Tall Dwarf
Seed shape Round Wrinkled
Seed colour Yellow Green
Flower colour Violet White

🌟 Important Terms

Term Meaning
Dominant trait Trait expressed in F₁ generation
Recessive trait Trait hidden in F₁ generation
Genotype Genetic makeup
Phenotype Physical appearance

🧬 Monohybrid Cross ⭐ Very Important

A cross involving only one pair of contrasting characters is called monohybrid cross.

Example:

Tall plant × Dwarf plant


🌟 Monohybrid Cross Diagram


🌟 Mendel’s Experiment

Parent Generation:

Tall plant (TT) × Dwarf plant (tt)


🌟 F₁ Generation

All offspring were tall (Tt).

This showed that:

  • Tallness is dominant
  • Dwarfness is recessive

🌟 F₂ Generation

When F₁ plants self-pollinated:

Ratio obtained:

3 Tall : 1 Dwarf


🌟 Law of Dominance

In a pair of contrasting traits, only one trait expresses itself in F₁ generation. This is called dominant trait.


🌟 Law of Segregation

Traits separate during formation of gametes and reunite during fertilization.


🧬 Dihybrid Cross

Cross involving two pairs of contrasting characters.

Example:

Round yellow seeds × wrinkled green seeds


🌟 Dihybrid Ratio

9 : 3 : 3 : 1


🌟 Sex Determination in Humans ⭐

Sex determination is the process by which sex of a child is determined.


🌟 Human Chromosomes

Humans have:

  • 22 pairs of autosomes
  • 1 pair of sex chromosomes

🌟 Sex Chromosomes

Gender Chromosomes
Male XY
Female XX

🌟 Sex Determination Diagram


🌟 How Is Sex Determined?

Mother always contributes X chromosome.

Father contributes:

  • X chromosome → Girl (XX)
  • Y chromosome → Boy (XY)

Therefore, the father determines the sex of the child.


🌟 Important NCERT Point ⭐

The probability of getting a boy or girl is 50%.


🌍 Evolution

Evolution means gradual change in organisms over millions of years.


🌟 Causes of Evolution

  1. Variations
  2. Natural selection
  3. Genetic drift
  4. Geographical isolation

🌟 Charles Darwin and Natural Selection

Charles Darwin proposed the theory of natural selection.


🌟 Natural Selection

Organisms with favourable variations survive and reproduce better.

This is called “Survival of the Fittest”.


🌟 Speciation

Formation of new species from existing species.


🌟 Factors Leading to Speciation

1. Geographical Isolation

Physical barriers separate populations.

Examples:

  • Mountains
  • Rivers
  • Seas

2. Genetic Drift

Random changes in gene frequency.


3. Natural Selection

Environment selects organisms with useful variations.


🌟 Evolution and Classification

Organisms with similar characteristics are grouped together because they share common ancestry.


🌟 Homologous Organs ⭐

Organs having:

  • Same basic structure
  • Same origin
  • Different functions

Examples:

  • Human arm
  • Whale fin
  • Bat wing

These provide evidence for divergent evolution.


🌟 Homologous Organs Diagram


🌟 Analogous Organs ⭐

Organs having:

  • Different structure
  • Different origin
  • Same function

Example:

  • Wings of bird
  • Wings of insect

These provide evidence for convergent evolution.


🌟 Analogous Organs Diagram


🌟 Fossils ⭐ Very Important

Fossils are preserved remains or traces of ancient organisms.


🌟 Importance of Fossils

  1. Provide evidence of evolution
  2. Help determine age of organisms
  3. Show extinct species
  4. Help study evolutionary history

🌟 Fossil Diagram


🌟 Evolution by Stages

Complex organs evolved gradually over time.

Example:

Evolution of eye


🌟 Human Evolution

Modern humans evolved from ape-like ancestors over millions of years.


🔥 Important Differences

Acquired Trait vs Inherited Trait

Acquired Trait Inherited Trait
Develops during life Present from birth
Not inherited Inherited
Example: Muscles Example: Eye colour

Homologous vs Analogous Organs

Homologous Organs Analogous Organs
Same origin Different origin
Different functions Same functions
Divergent evolution Convergent evolution

Dominant Trait vs Recessive Trait

Dominant Trait Recessive Trait
Expressed in F₁ generation Hidden in F₁ generation
Represented by capital letter Represented by small letter

🎯 Most Important Board Questions with Answers


Q1. Why is Mendel called the Father of Genetics?

Answer:

Gregor Mendel performed experiments on pea plants and explained the basic laws of inheritance. Therefore, he is called the Father of Genetics.


Q2. What are homologous organs? Give examples.

Answer:

Homologous organs are organs having similar basic structure and origin but different functions.

Examples:

Human arm, whale fin and bat wing.


Q3. Why are variations important?

Answer:

Variations help organisms adapt to changing environmental conditions and increase chances of survival.


Q4. Explain sex determination in humans.

Answer:

Humans have XX chromosomes in females and XY chromosomes in males.

Mother always contributes X chromosome while father contributes either X or Y chromosome.

  • XX → Female child
  • XY → Male child

Therefore, father determines the sex of the child.


Q5. What are fossils? Mention their importance.

Answer:

Fossils are preserved remains or impressions of ancient organisms.

Importance:

  • Provide evidence of evolution
  • Help study extinct organisms
  • Show evolutionary relationships

🔥 Important NCERT Points

  • Acquired traits are not inherited.
  • Variations are important for survival.
  • Fossils provide evidence for evolution.
  • Sex determination depends on father.
  • Homologous organs indicate common ancestry.

🧠 Super Tricks

Genetics Terms:

“GCD”

  • Gene
  • Chromosome
  • DNA

Mendel Ratios:

  • Monohybrid → 3:1
  • Dihybrid → 9:3:3:1

Human Chromosomes:

“22 + 1”

  • 22 pairs autosomes
  • 1 pair sex chromosomes

✍️ Most Important Diagrams for Boards

  1. Monohybrid cross
  2. Sex determination
  3. Homologous organs
  4. Analogous organs
  5. Fossils

🎯 Expected Questions for CBSE Board 2026

  1. Explain Mendel’s monohybrid cross.
  2. What are homologous organs?
  3. Explain sex determination in humans.
  4. Differentiate inherited and acquired traits.
  5. What are fossils?
  6. Explain natural selection.
  7. Why are variations important?
  8. Differentiate homologous and analogous organs.
  9. Evolution (Class 10 Science) – 20 Important MCQs

    1. Evolution means: A) Growth of an organism
    B) Gradual change in living organisms over generations
    C) Reproduction
    D) Respiration
    Answer: B


    2. The theory of Natural Selection was proposed by: A) Lamarck
    B) Mendel
    C) Darwin
    D) Aristotle
    Answer: C


    3. Evolution is supported by: A) Fossils
    B) Comparative anatomy
    C) Embryology
    D) All of these
    Answer: D


    4. Fossils are: A) Living organisms
    B) Preserved remains of ancient organisms
    C) Rocks only
    D) Minerals only
    Answer: B


    5. The age of fossils can be determined by: A) Carbon dating
    B) Litmus test
    C) Titration
    D) Distillation
    Answer: A


    6. Homologous organs indicate: A) Common ancestry
    B) Different ancestry
    C) No relation
    D) Extinction
    Answer: A


    7. Forelimbs of humans, whales and bats are examples of: A) Analogous organs
    B) Homologous organs
    C) Vestigial organs
    D) Fossils
    Answer: B


    8. Wings of birds and insects are: A) Homologous organs
    B) Analogous organs
    C) Fossils
    D) Embryos
    Answer: B


    9. Darwin's theory is based on: A) Mutation
    B) Natural Selection
    C) Cloning
    D) Hybridization
    Answer: B


    10. "Survival of the Fittest" was associated with: A) Darwin's theory
    B) Cell theory
    C) Germ theory
    D) Atomic theory
    Answer: A


    11. According to Lamarck, giraffes developed long necks due to: A) Natural selection
    B) Use and disuse of organs
    C) Mutation only
    D) Fossil evidence
    Answer: B


    12. Variations are important because they: A) Cause extinction only
    B) Help in adaptation and evolution
    C) Stop reproduction
    D) Prevent survival
    Answer: B


    13. Evolution occurs through: A) Sudden creation
    B) Gradual accumulation of variations
    C) Magic
    D) Chance only
    Answer: B


    14. Human evolution suggests humans evolved from: A) Modern monkeys
    B) Ape-like ancestors
    C) Fish
    D) Birds
    Answer: B


    15. Which is NOT evidence of evolution? A) Fossils
    B) Embryology
    C) Comparative anatomy
    D) Photosynthesis
    Answer: D


    16. The branch of science dealing with fossils is called: A) Ecology
    B) Paleontology
    C) Cytology
    D) Anatomy
    Answer: B


    17. Which statement is correct? A) Evolution occurs in a single generation.
    B) Evolution is a slow process.
    C) Evolution stops after species formation.
    D) Evolution occurs only in animals.
    Answer: B


    18. Analogous organs have: A) Same origin, different function
    B) Different origin, same function
    C) Same origin, same function
    D) No function
    Answer: B


    19. Fossils found in deeper rock layers are generally: A) Newer
    B) Older
    C) Larger
    D) Smaller
    Answer: B


    20. The ultimate source of variation is: A) Mutation
    B) Digestion
    C) Respiration
    D) Excretion
    Answer: A

    Score Card

    • 18–20 = NEET/Board Level Excellent 🔥
    • 15–17 = Very Good ✅
    • 10–14 = Good 👍
    • Below 10 = Revise Evolution Again 
    • Evolution (Class 10 Science) – Next 20 Tricky MCQs 🔥

      21. Which of the following provides the strongest evidence for evolution? A) Respiration
      B) Fossils
      C) Nutrition
      D) Excretion
      Answer: B


      22. The term "speciation" refers to: A) Extinction of species
      B) Formation of new species
      C) Migration of species
      D) Adaptation only
      Answer: B


      23. Variations that help an organism survive are called: A) Harmful variations
      B) Neutral variations
      C) Adaptive variations
      D) Vestigial variations
      Answer: C


      24. Archaeopteryx is considered a connecting link between: A) Fish and Amphibians
      B) Reptiles and Birds
      C) Mammals and Birds
      D) Reptiles and Mammals
      Answer: B


      25. Which scientist proposed inheritance of acquired characters? A) Darwin
      B) Lamarck
      C) Mendel
      D) Morgan
      Answer: B


      26. The wings of a bat and the wings of a bird are: A) Analogous organs
      B) Homologous organs
      C) Vestigial organs
      D) Rudimentary organs
      Answer: B


      27. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in humans? A) Heart
      B) Lungs
      C) Appendix
      D) Kidney
      Answer: C


      28. Fossils are usually found in: A) Igneous rocks
      B) Sedimentary rocks
      C) Metamorphic rocks
      D) Granite
      Answer: B


      29. Which statement supports Darwin's theory? A) Organisms change because they need to.
      B) Useful variations are selected by nature.
      C) Acquired characters are inherited.
      D) Evolution occurs suddenly.
      Answer: B


      30. Evolutionary relationships can be studied using: A) DNA comparison
      B) Fossils
      C) Homologous organs
      D) All of these
      Answer: D


      31. The process by which better-adapted organisms survive and reproduce is: A) Mutation
      B) Natural Selection
      C) Fertilization
      D) Hybridization
      Answer: B


      32. Which is an example of analogous organs? A) Human arm and whale flipper
      B) Bat wing and bird wing
      C) Human arm and bat wing
      D) Whale flipper and bat wing
      Answer: B


      33. Evolution takes place at the level of: A) Individual
      B) Population
      C) Organ
      D) Tissue
      Answer: B


      34. The similarity in embryos of different vertebrates suggests: A) Common ancestry
      B) Different ancestry
      C) Extinction
      D) Mutation only
      Answer: A


      35. Which of the following is NOT a factor in natural selection? A) Variation
      B) Competition
      C) Overproduction
      D) Photosynthesis
      Answer: D


      36. The modern human is known as: A) Homo erectus
      B) Homo habilis
      C) Homo sapiens
      D) Australopithecus
      Answer: C


      37. Evolution explains: A) Diversity of life forms
      B) Origin of species
      C) Adaptations
      D) All of these
      Answer: D


      38. The oldest fossils are generally found in: A) Upper rock layers
      B) Deepest rock layers
      C) Soil surface
      D) Water bodies
      Answer: B


      39. Which of the following is NOT evidence of common ancestry? A) Homologous organs
      B) Embryological similarities
      C) Fossils
      D) Analogous organs
      Answer: D


      40. Darwin observed natural selection during his voyage on: A) HMS Victory
      B) HMS Beagle
      C) Titanic
      D) Mayflower
      Answer: B

      PYQ Trick Question 🚨

      41. Evolution cannot be equated with progress because: A) Evolution always produces better organisms
      B) Evolution only increases complexity
      C) Evolution is simply change over generations, not necessarily improvement
      D) Evolution stops after adaptation
      Answer: C

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Human Reproduction Notes & MCQs for NEET 2027 | NCERT Hindi-English Notes, 200 Questions, PYQs & Assertion Reason

Human Reproduction MCQs (Q1–30)

Q1.

The male reproductive system consists of:

A) Testes, duct system, accessory glands and external genitalia
B) Testes and penis only
C) Testes and duct system only
D) Testes and accessory glands only

Answer: A


Q2.

The scrotum helps in:

A) Testosterone synthesis only
B) Maintaining lower temperature for spermatogenesis
C) Urine storage
D) Sperm transport

Answer: B


Q3.

Which cells are called "nurse cells" of testis?

A) Leydig cells
B) Sertoli cells
C) Spermatogonia
D) Spermatids

Answer: B


Q4.

Testosterone is secreted by:

A) Sertoli cells
B) Leydig cells
C) Spermatids
D) Epididymis

Answer: B


Q5.

Spermatogenesis occurs in:

A) Epididymis
B) Vas deferens
C) Seminiferous tubules
D) Urethra

Answer: C


Q6.

Which structure stores and matures sperms?

A) Vas deferens
B) Epididymis
C) Seminiferous tubules
D) Urethra

Answer: B


Q7.

The ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of:

A) Epididymis and urethra
B) Vas deferens and duct of seminal vesicle
C) Testis and urethra
D) Vas deferens and prostate gland

Answer: B


Q8.

Fructose-rich secretion is produced by:

A) Prostate gland
B) Bulbourethral gland
C) Seminal vesicle
D) Testis

Answer: C


Q9.

The acrosome of sperm is derived from:

A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Golgi apparatus
D) Ribosome

Answer: C


Q10.

Acrosome contains enzymes for:

A) ATP synthesis
B) Ovum penetration
C) Testosterone production
D) Cell division

Answer: B


Q11.

Which part of sperm contains mitochondria?

A) Head
B) Neck
C) Middle piece
D) Tail

Answer: C


Q12.

One primary spermatocyte produces:

A) 1 sperm
B) 2 sperms
C) 3 sperms
D) 4 sperms

Answer: D


Q13.

Spermiogenesis is:

A) Formation of spermatids
B) Transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa
C) Release of sperms
D) Fertilisation

Answer: B


Q14.

Release of spermatozoa from Sertoli cells is called:

A) Spermatogenesis
B) Spermiation
C) Capacitation
D) Ovulation

Answer: B


Q15.

LH acts on:

A) Sertoli cells
B) Leydig cells
C) Oogonia
D) Ovum

Answer: B


Q16.

FSH acts mainly on:

A) Leydig cells
B) Sertoli cells
C) Ovum
D) Corpus luteum

Answer: B


Q17.

The female primary reproductive organs are:

A) Oviducts
B) Ovaries
C) Uterus
D) Vagina

Answer: B


Q18.

The finger-like projections of infundibulum are:

A) Villi
B) Fimbriae
C) Cilia
D) Microvilli

Answer: B


Q19.

The longest part of oviduct is:

A) Infundibulum
B) Ampulla
C) Isthmus
D) Cervix

Answer: B


Q20.

Fertilisation usually occurs at:

A) Uterus
B) Cervix
C) Ampullary–Isthmic junction
D) Vagina

Answer: C


Q21.

The inner lining of uterus is:

A) Perimetrium
B) Myometrium
C) Endometrium
D) Mesometrium

Answer: C


Q22.

The muscular layer of uterus is:

A) Endometrium
B) Perimetrium
C) Myometrium
D) Serosa

Answer: C


Q23.

Which hormone is mainly produced by ovarian follicles?

A) Testosterone
B) Estrogen
C) hCG
D) Oxytocin

Answer: B


Q24.

The female external genitalia are collectively called:

A) Vulva
B) Cervix
C) Uterus
D) Ovary

Answer: A


Q25.

Each mammary gland contains:

A) 5–10 lobes
B) 10–15 lobes
C) 15–20 lobes
D) 20–25 lobes

Answer: C


Q26.

Milk is produced in:

A) Mammary ducts
B) Alveoli
C) Nipple
D) Lobules only

Answer: B


Q27.

Which of the following is haploid?

A) Spermatogonium
B) Primary spermatocyte
C) Secondary spermatocyte
D) Leydig cell

Answer: C


Q28.

Which cell enters meiosis-I during spermatogenesis?

A) Spermatogonium
B) Primary spermatocyte
C) Secondary spermatocyte
D) Spermatid

Answer: B


Q29.

The chromosome number in spermatid is:

A) 46
B) 23 pairs
C) 23
D) 92

Answer: C


Q30.

Which structure forms the birth canal along with the vagina?

A) Ovary
B) Cervix
C) Endometrium
D) Fimbriae

Answer: B

Quick Score Key

  • 27–30 = Excellent
  • 22–26 = Good
  • 15–21 = Needs Revision
  • Below 15 = Re-read Notes
  • Human Reproduction MCQs (Q31–60)

    Oogenesis + Menstrual Cycle + Hormonal Control (NCERT Based | NEET Level)

    Q31.

    Oogenesis begins:

    A) At puberty
    B) Before birth
    C) After menopause
    D) During fertilisation

    Answer: B


    Q32.

    Oogonia multiply by:

    A) Meiosis I
    B) Meiosis II
    C) Mitosis
    D) Amitosis

    Answer: C


    Q33.

    Primary oocytes are formed during:

    A) Foetal life
    B) Puberty
    C) Menopause
    D) Fertilisation

    Answer: A


    Q34.

    At birth, a female baby possesses approximately:

    A) 60,000–80,000 primary oocytes
    B) 1–2 million primary oocytes
    C) 10 million primary oocytes
    D) 400 primary oocytes

    Answer: B


    Q35.

    At puberty, the number of primary follicles is approximately:

    A) 60,000–80,000
    B) 1–2 million
    C) 10 million
    D) 400

    Answer: A


    Q36.

    The first meiotic division in oogenesis is completed:

    A) Before birth
    B) At puberty
    C) Just before ovulation
    D) After fertilisation

    Answer: C


    Q37.

    Secondary oocyte is produced after:

    A) Mitosis
    B) Meiosis I
    C) Meiosis II
    D) Fertilisation

    Answer: B


    Q38.

    Completion of Meiosis II in human female occurs:

    A) Before ovulation
    B) During menstruation
    C) Only after fertilisation
    D) At puberty

    Answer: C


    Q39.

    One primary oocyte ultimately produces:

    A) 4 ova
    B) 2 ova
    C) 1 ovum + 3 polar bodies
    D) 4 polar bodies only

    Answer: C


    Q40.

    Polar bodies are formed because cytokinesis is:

    A) Equal
    B) Unequal
    C) Absent
    D) Random

    Answer: B


    Menstrual Cycle

    Q41.

    The average duration of menstrual cycle is:

    A) 14 days
    B) 21 days
    C) 28 days
    D) 35 days

    Answer: C


    Q42.

    Menstrual phase generally lasts:

    A) Day 1–5
    B) Day 5–10
    C) Day 10–15
    D) Day 15–20

    Answer: A


    Q43.

    Menstrual flow occurs due to:

    A) Fertilisation
    B) Breakdown of endometrium
    C) Ovulation
    D) Implantation

    Answer: B


    Q44.

    Follicular phase is mainly controlled by:

    A) LH
    B) FSH
    C) hCG
    D) Oxytocin

    Answer: B


    Q45.

    Which hormone stimulates growth of ovarian follicles?

    A) LH
    B) FSH
    C) Progesterone
    D) Prolactin

    Answer: B


    Q46.

    Growing follicles secrete:

    A) Testosterone
    B) Estrogen
    C) Oxytocin
    D) hCG

    Answer: B


    Q47.

    Ovulation normally occurs on:

    A) Day 5
    B) Day 10
    C) Day 14
    D) Day 28

    Answer: C


    Q48.

    Ovulation is triggered by:

    A) FSH surge
    B) LH surge
    C) hCG surge
    D) Progesterone surge

    Answer: B


    Q49.

    The ruptured Graafian follicle transforms into:

    A) Corpus albicans
    B) Corpus luteum
    C) Morula
    D) Blastocyst

    Answer: B


    Q50.

    Corpus luteum secretes mainly:

    A) Testosterone
    B) FSH
    C) Progesterone
    D) hCG

    Answer: C


    Q51.

    The luteal phase occurs between:

    A) Day 1–5
    B) Day 6–13
    C) Day 14 only
    D) Day 15–28

    Answer: D


    Q52.

    Progesterone prepares the uterus for:

    A) Menstruation
    B) Implantation
    C) Ovulation
    D) Lactation

    Answer: B


    Q53.

    If fertilisation does not occur, corpus luteum:

    A) Persists permanently
    B) Enlarges continuously
    C) Degenerates
    D) Forms placenta

    Answer: C


    Q54.

    Degeneration of corpus luteum causes:

    A) Increase in progesterone
    B) Increase in estrogen
    C) Decrease in progesterone and menstruation
    D) Ovulation

    Answer: C


    Q55.

    Which phase is also called proliferative phase?

    A) Menstrual phase
    B) Follicular phase
    C) Luteal phase
    D) Ovulatory phase

    Answer: B


    Q56.

    Secretory phase corresponds to:

    A) Menstrual phase
    B) Follicular phase
    C) Luteal phase
    D) Ovulation

    Answer: C


    Q57.

    The endometrium becomes thickest during:

    A) Menstrual phase
    B) Follicular phase
    C) Secretory phase
    D) Ovulation

    Answer: C


    Q58.

    Menstrual cycle is absent during:

    A) Pregnancy
    B) Menopause
    C) Childhood
    D) All of these

    Answer: D


    Q59.

    The first menstruation is called:

    A) Menopause
    B) Menarche
    C) Ovulation
    D) Parturition

    Answer: B


    Q60.

    Permanent cessation of menstrual cycle is called:

    A) Menarche
    B) Ovulation
    C) Menopause
    D) Lactation

    Answer: C

    🔥 NEET NCERT Facts from Q31–60

    ✅ Oogenesis starts before birth.

    ✅ Meiosis-II completes only after fertilisation.

    ✅ 1 Primary Oocyte → 1 Ovum + 3 Polar Bodies.

    ✅ Menstrual cycle = 28 ± 2 days.

    ✅ Ovulation = Day 14.

    ✅ LH Surge causes ovulation.

    ✅ Corpus luteum secretes progesterone.

    ✅ Progesterone prepares uterus for implantation.

    ✅ Menarche = First menstruation.

    ✅ Menopause = Permanent stoppage of menstruation.

    Most Repeated NEET Questions

    1. Ovulation triggered by? → LH Surge
    2. Fertilisation site? → Ampullary-Isthmic Junction
    3. Meiosis II completes when? → After fertilisation
    4. Corpus luteum secretes? → Progesterone
    5. Human Reproduction MCQs (Q61–90)

      Fertilisation, Cleavage, Implantation, Pregnancy, Placenta (NEET Level)


      Q61.

      Fertilisation in humans usually occurs in:

      A) Uterus
      B) Cervix
      C) Vagina
      D) Ampullary-Isthmic Junction

      Answer: D


      Q62.

      The sperm first binds to:

      A) Endometrium
      B) Zona pellucida
      C) Placenta
      D) Corpus luteum

      Answer: B


      Q63.

      Acrosomal reaction helps in:

      A) Implantation
      B) Ovulation
      C) Penetration of ovum
      D) Lactation

      Answer: C


      Q64.

      The fusion of sperm and ovum forms:

      A) Morula
      B) Blastocyst
      C) Zygote
      D) Embryo

      Answer: C


      Q65.

      After fertilisation, the chromosome number in zygote is:

      A) n
      B) 2n
      C) 3n
      D) 4n

      Answer: B


      Q66.

      The cortical reaction prevents:

      A) Ovulation
      B) Implantation
      C) Polyspermy
      D) Menstruation

      Answer: C


      Q67.

      Cleavage is:

      A) Growth in size of embryo
      B) Rapid mitotic divisions of zygote
      C) Meiosis of embryo
      D) Implantation

      Answer: B


      Q68.

      A solid ball of 8–16 blastomeres is called:

      A) Blastocyst
      B) Morula
      C) Gastrula
      D) Embryo

      Answer: B


      Q69.

      Morula is formed approximately when embryo has:

      A) 2–4 cells
      B) 4–8 cells
      C) 8–16 cells
      D) 64 cells

      Answer: C


      Q70.

      Morula reaches the uterus after:

      A) Ovulation
      B) Fertilisation
      C) Cleavage divisions in oviduct
      D) Implantation

      Answer: C


      Q71.

      The blastocyst consists of:

      A) Only trophoblast
      B) Only inner cell mass
      C) Trophoblast and inner cell mass
      D) Endometrium and trophoblast

      Answer: C


      Q72.

      The trophoblast mainly contributes to:

      A) Embryo formation
      B) Placenta formation
      C) Ovary formation
      D) Corpus luteum formation

      Answer: B


      Q73.

      The inner cell mass gives rise to:

      A) Placenta
      B) Foetus
      C) Endometrium
      D) Corpus luteum

      Answer: B


      Q74.

      Implantation generally occurs:

      A) 1–2 days after fertilisation
      B) 3–4 days after fertilisation
      C) 6–7 days after fertilisation
      D) 15 days after fertilisation

      Answer: C


      Q75.

      Implantation occurs in:

      A) Cervix
      B) Endometrium
      C) Ovary
      D) Oviduct

      Answer: B


      Q76.

      The outer layer of blastocyst involved in implantation is:

      A) Inner cell mass
      B) Trophoblast
      C) Morula
      D) Amnion

      Answer: B


      Q77.

      The embryonic stage lasts up to:

      A) 2 weeks
      B) 4 weeks
      C) 8 weeks
      D) 12 weeks

      Answer: C


      Q78.

      After 8 weeks of pregnancy, the developing baby is called:

      A) Embryo
      B) Zygote
      C) Foetus
      D) Blastocyst

      Answer: C


      Q79.

      Human gestation period is approximately:

      A) 180 days
      B) 220 days
      C) 280 days
      D) 365 days

      Answer: C


      Q80.

      The placenta develops mainly from:

      A) Endometrium only
      B) Trophoblast only
      C) Maternal and foetal tissues together
      D) Ovary

      Answer: C


      Q81.

      Placenta acts as:

      A) Respiratory organ
      B) Excretory organ
      C) Nutritive organ
      D) All of these

      Answer: D


      Q82.

      Which hormone maintains pregnancy in the early stages?

      A) Oxytocin
      B) hCG
      C) Prolactin
      D) FSH

      Answer: B


      Q83.

      hCG is secreted by:

      A) Corpus luteum
      B) Placenta
      C) Pituitary
      D) Ovary

      Answer: B


      Q84.

      hCG helps in maintaining:

      A) Endometrium directly
      B) Corpus luteum
      C) Ovulation
      D) Menstruation

      Answer: B


      Q85.

      Which hormone is called Human Chorionic Gonadotropin?

      A) hPL
      B) hCG
      C) FSH
      D) LH

      Answer: B


      Q86.

      Placenta also secretes:

      1. hCG
      2. hPL
      3. Estrogen
      4. Progesterone

      A) 1 and 2 only
      B) 1, 2 and 3 only
      C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
      D) 3 and 4 only

      Answer: C


      Q87.

      The hormone responsible for milk production is:

      A) Oxytocin
      B) Prolactin
      C) hCG
      D) LH

      Answer: B


      Q88.

      The hormone responsible for milk ejection is:

      A) Prolactin
      B) Estrogen
      C) Oxytocin
      D) FSH

      Answer: C


      Q89.

      The first milk secreted after childbirth is:

      A) Lactose
      B) Colostrum
      C) Placental fluid
      D) Amniotic fluid

      Answer: B


      Q90.

      Colostrum is rich in:

      A) Testosterone
      B) Lipids only
      C) IgA antibodies
      D) hCG

      Answer: C

      🎯 NCERT One-Liners for NEET

      • Fertilisation → Ampullary-Isthmic Junction
      • Morula → 8–16 blastomeres
      • Implantation → 6–7 days after fertilisation
      • Embryo → up to 8 weeks
      • Foetus → after 8 weeks
      • Gestation period → 280 days (40 weeks)
      • hCG maintains corpus luteum
      • Placenta secretes hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone
      • Prolactin → milk production
      • Oxytocin → milk ejection & parturition
      • Colostrum → IgA-rich antibodies

      अगले सेट Q91–120 में Parturition, Lactation, Assertion-Reason, Statement-Based, Match the Column और PYQ-level tricky questions होंगे।

    6. Human Reproduction MCQs (Q91–120)

      Assertion–Reason + NCERT Tricky + PYQ Pattern

      Assertion–Reason Options

      A. Assertion and Reason both are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
      B. Assertion and Reason both are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
      C. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
      D. Assertion is false but Reason is true.


      Q91

      Assertion (A): Fertilisation in humans usually occurs at the ampullary-isthmic junction.

      Reason (R): This region is the site where sperm and secondary oocyte usually meet.

      Answer: A


      Q92

      Assertion (A): Acrosome is essential for fertilisation.

      Reason (R): Acrosome contains enzymes that help sperm penetrate the ovum.

      Answer: A


      Q93

      Assertion (A): One primary spermatocyte produces four spermatozoa.

      Reason (R): Meiosis produces four haploid cells.

      Answer: A


      Q94

      Assertion (A): One primary oocyte produces four functional ova.

      Reason (R): Cytokinesis is unequal during oogenesis.

      Answer: D

      (Assertion false, Reason true)


      Q95

      Assertion (A): Corpus luteum secretes progesterone.

      Reason (R): Progesterone prepares the uterus for implantation.

      Answer: A


      Q96

      Assertion (A): Menstruation occurs when fertilisation does not occur.

      Reason (R): Corpus luteum degenerates causing a fall in progesterone.

      Answer: A


      Q97

      Assertion (A): Implantation occurs in the endometrium.

      Reason (R): Endometrium is the innermost glandular layer of uterus.

      Answer: B


      Q98

      Assertion (A): Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue.

      Reason (R): Placenta secretes hCG and hPL.

      Answer: A


      Q99

      Assertion (A): Oxytocin helps in milk ejection.

      Reason (R): Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial cells.

      Answer: A


      Q100

      Assertion (A): Colostrum is important for newborn babies.

      Reason (R): It contains IgA antibodies.

      Answer: A


      Statement Based Questions

      Q101

      Which statements are correct?

      1. Sertoli cells nourish sperms.
      2. Leydig cells produce testosterone.
      3. Spermatogenesis occurs in epididymis.

      A) 1 and 2 only
      B) 2 and 3 only
      C) 1 and 3 only
      D) 1, 2 and 3

      Answer: A


      Q102

      Which statements are correct?

      1. Acrosome is Golgi-derived.
      2. Middle piece contains mitochondria.
      3. Tail provides motility.

      A) 1 only
      B) 1 and 2 only
      C) 2 and 3 only
      D) 1, 2 and 3

      Answer: D


      Q103

      Which of the following are parts of oviduct?

      1. Infundibulum
      2. Ampulla
      3. Isthmus

      A) 1 only
      B) 2 and 3 only
      C) 1 and 3 only
      D) 1, 2 and 3

      Answer: D


      Q104

      Which statements regarding ovulation are correct?

      1. Triggered by LH surge.
      2. Usually occurs on day 14.
      3. Releases secondary oocyte.

      A) 1 and 2 only
      B) 2 and 3 only
      C) 1 and 3 only
      D) 1, 2 and 3

      Answer: D


      Q105

      Which hormone mainly prepares uterus for implantation?

      A) Estrogen
      B) Testosterone
      C) Progesterone
      D) FSH

      Answer: C


      Match the Column

      Q106

      Match List-I with List-II:

      List-I List-II
      A. Sertoli Cells 1. Testosterone
      B. Leydig Cells 2. Nourishment
      C. Acrosome 3. Ovum penetration
      D. Corpus luteum 4. Progesterone

      A) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
      B) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
      C) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
      D) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

      Answer: A


      Q107

      Match the following:

      Structure Function
      A. Fimbriae 1. Implantation
      B. Endometrium 2. Collect ovum
      C. Myometrium 3. Labour contractions
      D. Ampullary-Isthmic Junction 4. Fertilisation

      A) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
      B) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
      C) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
      D) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

      Answer: A


      NCERT Line-Based Questions

      Q108

      The first menstruation at puberty is called:

      A) Menopause
      B) Menarche
      C) Ovulation
      D) Parturition

      Answer: B


      Q109

      Permanent cessation of menstruation is:

      A) Menarche
      B) Menopause
      C) Lactation
      D) Fertilisation

      Answer: B


      Q110

      The hormone secreted by placenta and detected in pregnancy tests is:

      A) FSH
      B) LH
      C) hCG
      D) Oxytocin

      Answer: C


      Q111

      The hormone responsible for uterine contractions during childbirth is:

      A) Estrogen
      B) Oxytocin
      C) FSH
      D) hPL

      Answer: B


      Q112

      Parturition is initiated by:

      A) Foetal ejection reflex
      B) Menstrual reflex
      C) Ovulation reflex
      D) Implantation reflex

      Answer: A


      Q113

      Human gestation period is approximately:

      A) 180 days
      B) 220 days
      C) 280 days
      D) 365 days

      Answer: C


      Q114

      The embryo develops into a foetus after:

      A) 2 weeks
      B) 4 weeks
      C) 8 weeks
      D) 12 weeks

      Answer: C


      Q115

      The placenta provides:

      1. Nutrition
      2. Respiration
      3. Excretion

      A) 1 only
      B) 1 and 2 only
      C) 2 and 3 only
      D) 1, 2 and 3

      Answer: D


      Q116

      Which hormone stimulates milk production?

      A) Prolactin
      B) Oxytocin
      C) LH
      D) hCG

      Answer: A


      Q117

      Which hormone stimulates milk ejection?

      A) Prolactin
      B) Estrogen
      C) Oxytocin
      D) Progesterone

      Answer: C


      Q118

      The first milk produced after childbirth is:

      A) Plasma
      B) Colostrum
      C) Lactose
      D) Endometrium

      Answer: B


      Q119

      Colostrum is rich in:

      A) Testosterone
      B) IgA antibodies
      C) Progesterone
      D) FSH

      Answer: B


      Q120

      Which statement is correct?

      A) Fertilisation occurs in uterus. B) Implantation occurs in oviduct. C) Fertilisation occurs at ampullary-isthmic junction and implantation in endometrium. D) Fertilisation and implantation both occur in ovary.

      Answer: C

      🔥 Most Repeated NEET Facts

      • Sertoli → Nourishment
      • Leydig → Testosterone
      • LH Surge → Ovulation
      • Fertilisation → Ampullary-Isthmic Junction
      • Implantation → Endometrium
      • hCG → Maintains corpus luteum
      • Prolactin → Milk production
      • Oxytocin → Milk ejection + Parturition
      • Colostrum → IgA antibodies
      • Menarche = First menstruation, Menopause = Permanent cessation

      अगला सेट Q121–150 में और कठिन NEET PYQ-style, Multiple Statement, Match the Column और NCERT Exemplar level प्रश्न होंगे।

    7. Human Reproduction MCQs (Q121–150)

      NEET PYQ Style | NCERT Exemplar Level | High-Yield


      Q121

      Which of the following structures is NOT derived from the blastocyst?

      A) Trophoblast
      B) Inner cell mass
      C) Placenta
      D) Corpus luteum

      Answer: D


      Q122

      The immediate product of fertilisation is:

      A) Morula
      B) Blastocyst
      C) Zygote
      D) Embryo

      Answer: C


      Q123

      How many chromosomes are present in a human secondary oocyte?

      A) 46
      B) 23 pairs
      C) 23
      D) 92

      Answer: C


      Q124

      Which of the following is haploid?

      1. Spermatid
      2. Secondary spermatocyte
      3. Ovum

      A) 1 only
      B) 1 and 2 only
      C) 2 and 3 only
      D) 1, 2 and 3

      Answer: D


      Q125

      The acrosomal cap contains:

      A) Testosterone
      B) Digestive enzymes
      C) DNA
      D) RNA

      Answer: B


      Q126

      The first cleavage division of zygote is:

      A) Meiotic
      B) Mitotic
      C) Amitotic
      D) Reductional

      Answer: B


      Q127

      Which stage enters the uterus?

      A) Secondary oocyte only
      B) Morula and later blastocyst
      C) Spermatid
      D) Corpus luteum

      Answer: B


      Q128

      The blastocoel is present in:

      A) Morula
      B) Blastocyst
      C) Zygote
      D) Gastrula

      Answer: B


      Q129

      The cavity of blastocyst is called:

      A) Coelom
      B) Blastocoel
      C) Amnion
      D) Chorion

      Answer: B


      Q130

      Which part of blastocyst forms the embryo proper?

      A) Trophoblast
      B) Zona pellucida
      C) Inner cell mass
      D) Blastocoel

      Answer: C


      Q131

      The placenta is connected to the foetus by:

      A) Oviduct
      B) Cervix
      C) Umbilical cord
      D) Endometrium

      Answer: C


      Q132

      Umbilical cord helps in:

      A) Fertilisation
      B) Implantation
      C) Transport between foetus and placenta
      D) Menstruation

      Answer: C


      Q133

      Which hormone is known as the "pregnancy hormone"?

      A) FSH
      B) LH
      C) hCG
      D) Oxytocin

      Answer: C


      Q134

      Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted by:

      A) Pituitary
      B) Corpus luteum
      C) Placenta
      D) Ovary

      Answer: C


      Q135

      The placenta acts as:

      1. Respiratory organ
      2. Nutritive organ
      3. Endocrine organ

      A) 1 only
      B) 2 only
      C) 1 and 2 only
      D) 1, 2 and 3

      Answer: D


      Q136

      The placenta secretes:

      1. hCG
      2. hPL
      3. Estrogen
      4. Progesterone

      A) 1 and 2 only
      B) 1, 2 and 3 only
      C) 2, 3 and 4 only
      D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

      Answer: D


      Q137

      Which hormone stimulates mammary gland development during pregnancy?

      A) hPL
      B) Testosterone
      C) FSH
      D) LH

      Answer: A


      Q138

      The gestation period in humans is approximately:

      A) 32 weeks
      B) 36 weeks
      C) 40 weeks
      D) 52 weeks

      Answer: C


      Q139

      Foetal ejection reflex is associated with:

      A) Fertilisation
      B) Implantation
      C) Parturition
      D) Menstruation

      Answer: C


      Q140

      The hormone mainly responsible for parturition is:

      A) FSH
      B) LH
      C) Oxytocin
      D) hCG

      Answer: C


      Assertion–Reason

      Q141

      Assertion: Sertoli cells are called nurse cells.

      Reason: They provide nourishment to developing sperms.

      A) Both true and Reason explains Assertion
      B) Both true but Reason does not explain
      C) Assertion true, Reason false
      D) Assertion false, Reason true

      Answer: A


      Q142

      Assertion: Fertilisation restores diploid chromosome number.

      Reason: Fusion of two haploid gametes forms a diploid zygote.

      Answer: A


      Q143

      Assertion: Meiosis II in secondary oocyte completes before fertilisation.

      Reason: Secondary oocyte is arrested at metaphase-II.

      Answer: D

      (Assertion false, Reason true)


      Q144

      Assertion: Corpus luteum degenerates if fertilisation does not occur.

      Reason: hCG is not available to maintain it.

      Answer: A


      Q145

      Assertion: Implantation occurs in the endometrium.

      Reason: Endometrium is highly vascular and glandular.

      Answer: A


      Match the Column

      Q146

      List I List II
      A. Leydig cells 1. Testosterone
      B. Sertoli cells 2. Nourishment
      C. Acrosome 3. Ovum penetration
      D. Corpus luteum 4. Progesterone

      A) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
      B) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
      C) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
      D) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

      Answer: A


      Q147

      Structure Function
      A. Fimbriae 1. Collect ovum
      B. Ampullary-Isthmic Junction 2. Fertilisation
      C. Endometrium 3. Implantation
      D. Myometrium 4. Labour contractions

      A) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
      B) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
      C) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
      D) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

      Answer: A


      Q148

      Which of the following correctly represents the sequence?

      A) Morula → Zygote → Blastocyst
      B) Zygote → Morula → Blastocyst
      C) Blastocyst → Morula → Zygote
      D) Zygote → Blastocyst → Morula

      Answer: B


      Q149

      Which event occurs first?

      A) Implantation
      B) Blastocyst formation
      C) Fertilisation
      D) Morula formation

      Answer: C


      Q150

      Which statement is correct?

      A) Fertilisation occurs in uterus. B) Implantation occurs in endometrium. C) Ovulation is caused by progesterone surge. D) Meiosis II in oocyte completes before ovulation.

      Answer: B

      🎯 NCERT Revision Box

      ✅ Fertilisation → Ampullary-Isthmic Junction

      ✅ Implantation → Endometrium

      ✅ Morula → 8–16 blastomeres

      ✅ Blastocyst → Trophoblast + Inner Cell Mass

      ✅ hCG → Maintains corpus luteum

      ✅ hPL → Mammary gland development

      ✅ Oxytocin → Parturition + Milk ejection

      ✅ Prolactin → Milk production

      ✅ Meiosis II completes only after fertilisation

      ✅ Gestation period → 280 days (40 weeks)

      अगला सेट Q151–200 में केवल NEET PYQs, NCERT Exemplar-type tricky questions, Multiple Correct, Statement-Based और Previous Year Patterns होंगे।

    8. Human Reproduction MCQs (Q151–175)

      NEET PYQ Pattern | NCERT Line-by-Line | Tricky Questions


      Q151

      The structure that receives the ovum after ovulation is:

      A) Ampulla
      B) Isthmus
      C) Fimbriae of infundibulum
      D) Uterus

      Answer: C


      Q152

      Which of the following is NOT a part of the male duct system?

      A) Rete testis
      B) Vasa efferentia
      C) Epididymis
      D) Seminiferous tubule

      Answer: D


      Q153

      Seminal plasma is contributed mainly by:

      A) Testes only
      B) Epididymis only
      C) Accessory glands
      D) Urethra

      Answer: C


      Q154

      The chromosome number in a primary spermatocyte is:

      A) 23
      B) n
      C) 46
      D) 22

      Answer: C


      Q155

      Secondary spermatocyte contains:

      A) 46 chromosomes
      B) 23 chromosomes
      C) 92 chromosomes
      D) 44 chromosomes

      Answer: B


      Q156

      The hormone directly responsible for spermatogenesis is:

      A) Estrogen
      B) Testosterone
      C) Oxytocin
      D) hCG

      Answer: B


      Q157

      Which cell division reduces chromosome number by half?

      A) Mitosis
      B) Meiosis I
      C) Cytokinesis
      D) Cleavage

      Answer: B


      Q158

      The release of ovum from Graafian follicle is:

      A) Menstruation
      B) Ovulation
      C) Implantation
      D) Fertilisation

      Answer: B


      Q159

      Which ovarian structure secretes progesterone?

      A) Primary follicle
      B) Secondary follicle
      C) Corpus luteum
      D) Oogonium

      Answer: C


      Q160

      The endometrium regenerates during:

      A) Menstrual phase
      B) Follicular phase
      C) Ovulation
      D) Fertilisation

      Answer: B


      Q161

      Which hormone level peaks just before ovulation?

      A) Progesterone
      B) Oxytocin
      C) LH
      D) hCG

      Answer: C


      Q162

      The female gamete released during ovulation is actually:

      A) Ovum
      B) Oogonium
      C) Primary oocyte
      D) Secondary oocyte

      Answer: D


      Q163

      The sperm acquires fertilising capacity in the female reproductive tract by:

      A) Cleavage
      B) Capacitation
      C) Ovulation
      D) Spermiogenesis

      Answer: B


      Q164

      Zona pellucida surrounds:

      A) Sperm
      B) Ovum/Secondary oocyte
      C) Placenta
      D) Blastocyst

      Answer: B


      Q165

      The block to polyspermy is mainly due to:

      A) LH surge
      B) Cortical reaction
      C) Implantation
      D) Menstruation

      Answer: B


      Q166

      The embryo with 8–16 blastomeres is called:

      A) Blastocyst
      B) Morula
      C) Gastrula
      D) Foetus

      Answer: B


      Q167

      The trophoblast forms:

      A) Embryo proper
      B) Placenta
      C) Ovary
      D) Endometrium

      Answer: B


      Q168

      Inner cell mass ultimately develops into:

      A) Placenta
      B) Chorion
      C) Embryo
      D) Corpus luteum

      Answer: C


      Q169

      Human pregnancy is detected by testing:

      A) FSH
      B) LH
      C) hCG
      D) Prolactin

      Answer: C


      Q170

      The hormone responsible for maintaining corpus luteum during early pregnancy is:

      A) FSH
      B) hCG
      C) Oxytocin
      D) Prolactin

      Answer: B


      Assertion–Reason

      Q171

      Assertion: Colostrum provides passive immunity to newborns.

      Reason: Colostrum contains IgA antibodies.

      A) Both true and Reason explains Assertion
      B) Both true but Reason not explanation
      C) Assertion true, Reason false
      D) Assertion false, Reason true

      Answer: A


      Q172

      Assertion: Oxytocin is called the birth hormone.

      Reason: It induces strong uterine contractions during parturition.

      Answer: A


      Q173

      Assertion: Blastocyst is formed before morula.

      Reason: Morula develops into blastocyst.

      Answer: D

      (Assertion false, Reason true)


      Q174

      Assertion: Placenta acts as an endocrine gland.

      Reason: It secretes hCG, hPL, estrogen and progesterone.

      Answer: A


      Q175

      Assertion: Implantation occurs in myometrium.

      Reason: Myometrium is muscular layer of uterus.

      Answer: D

      (Assertion false, Reason true)


      🔥 Super-Important NCERT Facts

      ✅ Ovulated cell = Secondary Oocyte

      ✅ Fertilisation site = Ampullary-Isthmic Junction

      ✅ Implantation site = Endometrium

      ✅ Morula = 8–16 blastomeres

      ✅ Trophoblast → Placenta

      ✅ Inner Cell Mass → Embryo

      ✅ hCG → Maintains Corpus Luteum

      ✅ Oxytocin → Parturition & Milk Ejection

      ✅ Prolactin → Milk Production

      ✅ Colostrum → IgA Antibodies

      Next: Q176–200 (Final Part) — toughest NEET PYQ-style questions, statement-based, match-the-column, and NCERT traps.

    9. Human Reproduction MCQs (Q176–200)

      Final NEET Revision Set | NCERT Traps + PYQ Style


      Q176

      Which of the following correctly represents the path of sperm movement?

      A) Seminiferous tubules → Epididymis → Rete testis → Vas deferens
      B) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens
      C) Rete testis → Seminiferous tubules → Epididymis → Vas deferens
      D) Seminiferous tubules → Vas deferens → Epididymis

      Answer: B


      Q177

      The secretion of Sertoli cells that inhibits FSH release is:

      A) Relaxin
      B) Inhibin
      C) Oxytocin
      D) hCG

      Answer: B


      Q178

      Which hormone is responsible for development of secondary sexual characters in males?

      A) FSH
      B) LH
      C) Testosterone
      D) Estrogen

      Answer: C


      Q179

      The mature Graafian follicle contains:

      A) Primary oocyte
      B) Secondary oocyte
      C) Oogonium
      D) Ovum

      Answer: B


      Q180

      The corpus albicans is formed from:

      A) Graafian follicle before ovulation
      B) Corpus luteum after degeneration
      C) Blastocyst
      D) Endometrium

      Answer: B


      Statement-Based Questions

      Q181

      Which statements are correct?

      1. FSH stimulates follicular growth.
      2. LH induces ovulation.
      3. Corpus luteum secretes progesterone.

      A) 1 only
      B) 1 and 2 only
      C) 2 and 3 only
      D) 1, 2 and 3

      Answer: D


      Q182

      Which statements are correct?

      1. Fertilisation occurs in ampullary-isthmic junction.
      2. Implantation occurs in endometrium.
      3. Placenta develops from maternal and foetal tissues.

      A) 1 and 2 only
      B) 2 and 3 only
      C) 1 and 3 only
      D) 1, 2 and 3

      Answer: D


      Q183

      Which statements are correct?

      1. Colostrum contains IgA.
      2. Prolactin stimulates milk production.
      3. Oxytocin stimulates milk ejection.

      A) 1 only
      B) 1 and 2 only
      C) 2 and 3 only
      D) 1, 2 and 3

      Answer: D


      Q184

      Which of the following are accessory glands of male reproductive system?

      1. Seminal vesicles
      2. Prostate gland
      3. Bulbourethral glands

      A) 1 only
      B) 1 and 2 only
      C) 2 and 3 only
      D) 1, 2 and 3

      Answer: D


      Q185

      Which structure is NOT part of the female reproductive tract?

      A) Oviduct
      B) Uterus
      C) Epididymis
      D) Vagina

      Answer: C


      Match the Column

      Q186

      List-I List-II
      A. Acrosome 1. ATP Production
      B. Middle Piece 2. Enzymes
      C. Tail 3. Motility
      D. Head 4. Nucleus

      A) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
      B) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
      C) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
      D) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

      Answer: A


      Q187

      List-I List-II
      A. Menarche 1. First Menstruation
      B. Menopause 2. Permanent cessation
      C. Parturition 3. Childbirth
      D. Lactation 4. Milk secretion

      A) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
      B) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
      C) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
      D) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

      Answer: A


      NCERT Exemplar Style

      Q188

      Which hormone reaches its peak during the middle of menstrual cycle?

      A) Progesterone
      B) LH
      C) Oxytocin
      D) Prolactin

      Answer: B


      Q189

      The function of fimbriae is:

      A) Fertilisation
      B) Implantation
      C) Collection of ovum after ovulation
      D) Milk secretion

      Answer: C


      Q190

      The hormone essential for maintenance of endometrium after ovulation is:

      A) Estrogen
      B) Progesterone
      C) FSH
      D) LH

      Answer: B


      Assertion–Reason

      Q191

      Assertion: Placenta serves as an endocrine tissue.

      Reason: It secretes hCG, hPL, estrogen and progesterone.

      Answer: A


      Q192

      Assertion: Secondary oocyte completes meiosis-II before fertilisation.

      Reason: Secondary oocyte is arrested at metaphase-II.

      Answer: D

      (Assertion false, Reason true)


      Q193

      Assertion: Endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during menstrual cycle.

      Reason: Ovarian hormones regulate uterine changes.

      Answer: A


      Q194

      Assertion: LH directly stimulates Leydig cells.

      Reason: Leydig cells produce testosterone.

      Answer: A


      Q195

      Assertion: Corpus luteum is essential in early pregnancy.

      Reason: It secretes progesterone.

      Answer: A


      Final Revision Questions

      Q196

      The number of functional gametes produced from one primary oocyte is:

      A) 4
      B) 3
      C) 2
      D) 1

      Answer: D


      Q197

      The number of sperms produced from one primary spermatocyte is:

      A) 1
      B) 2
      C) 4
      D) 8

      Answer: C


      Q198

      The first structure formed after cleavage is:

      A) Blastocyst
      B) Morula
      C) Placenta
      D) Foetus

      Answer: B


      Q199

      Which one is the correct sequence?

      A) Zygote → Blastocyst → Morula → Implantation
      B) Zygote → Morula → Blastocyst → Implantation
      C) Morula → Zygote → Blastocyst → Implantation
      D) Blastocyst → Morula → Implantation

      Answer: B


      Q200

      The most accurate NCERT statement is:

      A) Fertilisation occurs in uterus and implantation in ovary. B) Fertilisation occurs in ampullary-isthmic junction and implantation in endometrium. C) Fertilisation occurs in cervix and implantation in oviduct. D) Both occur in uterus.

      Answer: B

      🚀 Human Reproduction Chapter – Top 20 NCERT Facts for NEET

      1. Testes temperature = 2–2.5°C below body temperature.
      2. Sertoli cells nourish sperms.
      3. Leydig cells secrete testosterone.
      4. Acrosome is Golgi-derived.
      5. Middle piece contains mitochondria.
      6. Spermiogenesis = Spermatid → Sperm.
      7. Spermiation = Release of sperm from Sertoli cells.
      8. Ovulation releases a secondary oocyte.
      9. Fertilisation = Ampullary-Isthmic Junction.
      10. Implantation = Endometrium.
      11. Morula = 8–16 blastomeres.
      12. Blastocyst = Trophoblast + Inner Cell Mass.
      13. Inner Cell Mass → Embryo.
      14. Trophoblast → Placenta.
      15. Placenta secretes hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone.
      16. hCG maintains corpus luteum.
      17. Gestation period ≈ 280 days.
      18. Oxytocin → Parturition + Milk Ejection.
      19. Prolactin → Milk Production.
      20. Colostrum contains IgA antibodies.

      🎯 All the best future doctors.


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Life Processes MCQs with Answers (200 Questions) | Class 10 Science NCERT & PYQ Based

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